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A valuable collection of multiple-choice questions and answers related to mri technology. it covers various aspects of mri procedures, patient safety, contrast agents, and legal considerations. The questions are designed to test knowledge and understanding of key concepts in mri, making it a useful resource for students and professionals in the field. the questions cover topics such as patient screening, contrast agent reactions, infection control, and legal and ethical considerations in mri.
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A patient arrives at the imaging facility with a crainal scar. The technologist should: A. wrap the head in a sterile dressing B. perform the MRI procedure immediately to document the patient's surgical history C. ignore the scar, it doesn't matter if the patient has had cranial surgery, as longas we are scanning another part of the patient's body D. screen the patient, their doctor, and/or family member to find out what type of surgery the patient underwent - D. screen the patient, their doctor, and/or family member to find out what type of surgery the patient underwent What drug will be administered by the nurse or radiologist to a patient who has had a severe reaction to a contrast agent and developed brochospasms? A. atropine B. epinephrine C. xanax D. valium - B. epinephrine In which stage of infection do the infective microbes begin to multiply?
A. the incubation period B. the latent period C. the disease phase D. the convalescent phase - A. the incubation period In her studies on death and dying, Dr. Elizabeth Kubler-Ross described the first stage of the grieving process as: A. denial B. anger C. bargaining D. depression - A. denial A screening questionnaire for patients about to undergo MRI should include information about: A. Prior injuries B. Prior surgery and implants C. Pregnancy D. All of the above - D. All of the above Facsimile transmission of health information is: 1. not permitted
The medical term for hives is: A. cathartic B. aura C. emesis D. urticaria - D. urticaria What is the minimum amount of time that a pediatric patient must not be given anything by mouth (NPO) before the administration of sedation? C. 1 hour D. 6 hours - B. 4 hours Who is responsible for ensuring the application of safe practices in the MR environment? A. the physicist B. the radiologist C. the nurse D. the technologist - D. the technologist A. 2 hours B. 4 hours
A technologist who discloses confidential information to unauthorized individuals could be found guilty of: A. torts B. slander C. invasion of privacy D. libel - C. invasion of privacy What is the most commonly reported adverse reaction to gadolinum based contrast agents? A. emesis B. hypertension C. headache D. nausea - C. headache
shouldn't be screened, current HIPAA laws prevent us from interviewing anyone but the patient D. none of the above - A. should be screened before entering the scanroom All of the following statements regarding handwashing and skin care are correct except: A. any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing B. faucets should be opened & closed using paper towels C. hands should be washed after each patient contact D. hands should be smooth and free from chapping - A. any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing
For medicolegal reasons, images are required to include all the following information except: A. the date of the examination B. the patient's name and/or identification number C. directional or orientation markers D. the patient's date of birth - D. the patient's date of birth Each of the following is a fomite except: A. a fork B. a mosquito C. a doorknob D. the MR system couch - B. a mosquito The unit of measure of RF absorption is: A. Watts per kilogram B. Volts per pound C. Volts per kilogram D. Watts per pound - A. Watts per kilogram Mrs. Jones has just been sent to the MRI department from the emergency room, following a severe motor vehicle accident. She has suffered a fracture of C3 and her physicians are concerned about a cervical spinal cord compression at that
verbally monitored? A. all patients B. elderly patients with difficulty hearing C. deaf and mute patients D. all of the above - D. all of the above What should be obtained to provide a normal control for comparison when performing pediatric MR examinations? A. imaging of the contra-lateral extremity B. imaging of a secondary joint C. imaging of the ipsilateral extremity D. none of the above - A. imaging of the contra-lateral extremity The legal doctrine respondeat superior means which of the following? A. let the master answer B. the thing speaks for itself C. a matter settled by precedent D. a thing or matter settled by justice - A. let the master answer In preparation for the MRI examination, patients should be encouraged to: A. Wear a wrist-watch so they are aware of the length of the exam B. Wear their own clothing so as to feel at home with the study
C. Keep their hearing aids in so as to hear the commands and requests of the technologist D. Change into a patient gown or scrubs provided by the health care facility - D. Change into a patient gown or scrubs provided by the health care facility
B. atriovenous malformation C. hemangioma D. avascular necrosis - D. avascular necrosis Which structure corresponds with the level of T5? A. carina B. xiphoid process C. mandibular notch D. sternal angle - A. carina What structure does the long head of the biceps attach to? A. infraglenoid tubercle B. supraglenoid tubercle C. acromion process D. coracoid process - B. supraglenoid tubercle What group of tendons in the ankle do the does the extensor hallucis longus belong to? A. posterior B. anterior C. medial
D. lateral - B. anterior On a soft tissue neck, which structure is in closest proximity to the cervical vertebral body? A. pharynx B. trachea C. esophagus D. larynx - C. esophagus Which structure corresponds with the level of T3-T4? A. manubrial notch B. sternal angle C. carina D. xiphoid process - B. sternal angle
C. pancreas D. adrenal glands - C. pancreas The common bile duct is formed by the union of the: A. common hepatic and pancreatic ducts B. cystic and common hepatic ducts C. cystic and pancreatic ducts D. cystic and porta hepatic ducts - B. cystic and common hepatic ducts Into which structure does the distal portion of the biceps muscle insert? D. olecranon process - A. radial tuberosity The main bursa of the shoulder is the: A. bicipitoradial bursa B. subacromial-subdeltoid bursa C. olecranon bursa D. subscapular bursa - B. subacromial-subdeltoid bursa The dura mater extends to which vertebral level forming the thecal sac? A. radial tuberosity B. olecranon fossa C. coronoid process
At what threshold is the corpus luteum no longer considered a follicle but rather acyst? D. 5 mm - B. 20 mm What structure contains the artery which supplies the femoral head? A. greater trochanter B. transverse ligament C. acetabular labrum D. ligamentum teres - D. ligamentum teres When positioning a patient for an MRI examination of the knee, what helps toalign the ACL for its best demonstration? C. 15o internal rotation D. 45o internal rotation - B. 15o external rotation A. 45o external rotation B. 15o external rotation A. 10 mm B. 20 mm C. 15 mm
A. sagittal B. axial C. coronal D. oblique sagittal - C. coronal The ligament extends from C1 to the sacrum along the anterior surface of the vertebral bodies. A. anterior longitudinal B. apical C. alar D. posterior longitudinal - A. anterior longitudinal The aorta arises from the. A. left ventricle B. right ventricle C. right atrium D. left atrium - A. left ventricle Which pulse sequence will best demonstrate a bony contusion? A. T1 weighted spin echo B. inversion recovery C. gradient recalled echo
D. T2 weighted fast spin echo - B. inversion recovery In order to determine the level of the vertebrae in the thoracic spine, a sagittal locator in thoracic spine exams should include the: A. lumbar vertebrae and sacrum B. lumbar and thoracic vertebrae C. cervical and thoracic vertebrae D. thoracic vertebrae and sacrum - C. cervical and thoracic vertebrae What is the major stabilizing mechanism for the distal radioulnar joint? A. triangular fibrocartilage complex B. carpal tunnel C. flexor retinaculum D. carpal bridge - A. triangular fibrocartilage complex What is the function of the hyoid bone? A. prevents food from entering the trachea B. protects the delicate vocal cords C. forms a base for the tongue D. acts as a base for the laryngeal cartilages - C. forms a base for the tongue When performing a study of the parotid glands, the horizontal alignment