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This study guide provides a comprehensive overview of key concepts and definitions relevant to the 2025 soce final exam. It includes a series of questions and answers covering topics such as evidence handling, legal procedures, law enforcement roles, and ethical considerations. The guide is designed to help students prepare for the exam by providing a concise and organized review of essential information.
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What is the difference between close up and mid range photographs? - ANSWERS-Close up shows details of a specific item of evidence and must include a scale or identifier
Mid range shows the relationship between the evidence items within the scene
Trace Evidence - ANSWERS-Hairs
Fibers
Clothing
Paint Chips
Transfer Evidence
Glass
Wood
Soil/Dirt
Latent Print - ANSWERS-Among the most valuable and common types of physical evidence at a crime scene
Chain of Custody - ANSWERS-A documentation of everyone who handled the evidence as well as when, why, and what changes, if any, were made to it
Field Notes - ANSWERS-Document all witnesses, victims, complainants, and suspects present by writing their names, dates of birth, addresses, sexes, races, and telephone numbers
Admissible Evidence - ANSWERS-Relevant evidence tending to prove or disprove an important fact, with numerous exceptions specified
Insubordination - ANSWERS-failure to follow orders from superiors in the chain of command
Probation - ANSWERS-is a sentence placing a person under the supervision of a probation officer for a specified length of time instead of confinement.
Quid pro quo - ANSWERS-Latin term that means "something for something in return."
Prosecution - ANSWERS-presents the government's case
Hostile work environment - ANSWERS-a job culture where lewd jokes or other offensive habits are acceptable.
Perception - ANSWERS-is the impression in a person's mind of an individual, a group of people, or events based on experiences, biases, beliefs, assumptions, and observations.
EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission) - ANSWERS-the governmental agency that enforces compliance with the civil rights act
State Attorney - ANSWERS-same as prosecutor; responsible for filing formal charges in criminal cases
Judge - ANSWERS-is authorized to preside over the courtroom and to decide questions of law brought before the court.
Court administrator - ANSWERS-is responsible for the day-to-day functioning of a court system.
Perjury - ANSWERS-may be defined as a false statement that a person makes under oath but does not believe to be true.
Discrimination - ANSWERS-is the negative behavior toward a person or group that is based on color, race, sex, age, religion, ethnic and national origin, handicap, and/or marital status.
Sexual harassment - ANSWERS-is defined as unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature. The courts have held that intent is not a factor in determining what constitutes sexual harassment.
U.S. Supreme Court - ANSWERS-is the highest court in the United States and the chief authority in the judicial branch—one of three branches of the U.S. federal government. Hears appeals from the decisions of lower federal courts and state supreme courts, and it resolves issues of constitutional and federal law. Its decisions can be changed only by a constitutional amendment. The most important responsibility is to decide cases that raise questions of constitutional interpretation.
County and Municipal Holding Facilities - ANSWERS-These facilities provide a place for detainees while booking procedures are completed or until they can be transported to a county jail.
The Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF) - ANSWERS- enforces federal laws and regulations relating to alcohol and tobacco products, firearms and explosives, and acts of arson.
Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) - ANSWERS-enforces the controlled substances laws and regulations of the United States and recommends and supports non-enforcement programs aimed at reducing the availability of illicit controlled substances in the domestic and international markets.
Florida Supreme Court - ANSWERS-The highest court in the state of Florida, which consists of seven justices who are appointed by the governor. Hears cases including final orders imposing death sentences and appeals from lower state courts.
Years to get hired - ANSWERS-
Vertical Communication - ANSWERS-the information that flows down through the supervision level to the lowest levels of the organization
Law enforcement - ANSWERS-is responsible for the enforcement of laws and maintaining civil order.
Court system - ANSWERS-is responsible for the interpretation of laws.
Corrections - ANSWERS-is responsible for enforcing punishment as defined by the court system.
Requirements to be a police officer - ANSWERS-• be at least 19
any physical contact not required in the performance of official duties that is normally associated with the demonstration of affection or sexual misconduct
FL County Courts - ANSWERS-• Florida County Courts: The 67 county courts have limited jurisdiction and handle the following legal issues:
o minor criminal offenses (misdemeanors), which provide a maximum sentence of one year or less in the county jail
o county and municipal ordinance violations, including traffic infractions (some counties use hearing officers for these cases)
o civil cases involving amounts of $15,000 or less and small claims disputes (less than $5,000)
o the issuance of search and arrest warrants within the county
4 Levels of law enforcement agencies in the US - ANSWERS-Municipal (Police Departments, Public Safety Departments), County (Sheriff's Office), State (FDLE, FHP), Federal(ATF, DEA)
Civil law - ANSWERS-is the legal action that a person takes to resolve a private dispute with another person.
Case law - ANSWERS-is formed by the decisions of the court system (the judicial branch).
Probable cause - ANSWERS-The standard of justification required to make an arrest or conduct a search
Reasonable suspicion - ANSWERS-is the standard of justification needed to support a legal Terry stop or investigative detention. Is sometimes called "articulable suspicion" or "founded suspicion." All three terms simply mean that an officer can articulate, or put into words, facts that support a suspicion that the person stopped may be involved in a law violation.
Documentary Evidence - ANSWERS-anything written or printed which is o ered to prove or disprove facts pertaining to a case in court (Legal)
Testimonial evidence - ANSWERS-is witness statements tending to prove or disprove facts about the case.
Contraband - ANSWERS-is anything that is illegal to possess.
mental incompetence - ANSWERS-recognizes that a criminal defendant will be judged on his or her present ability to assist counsel by participating in the criminal defense.
arrest warrant - ANSWERS-is a court order authorizing law enforcement to take the individual named on the document into custody to answer for charges specified in the document.
Carroll doctrine - ANSWERS-the principle that an o cer may search a vehicle or other mobile conveyance without a warrant if there is probable cause to believe that the vehicle contains contraband or evidence of criminal activity (Legal)
Bill of Rights - ANSWERS-the first ten amendments to the Constitution, which are known as the
noncriminal violation - ANSWERS-An offense for which the only penalty may be a fine, forfeiture, or other civil penalty.
Administrative law - ANSWERS-is the body of law that allows for the creation of public regulatory agencies.
Culpable negligence - ANSWERS-is consciously doing an act that the person knew or should have known was likely to cause death or great bodily injury. An example of this fourth category of intent is vehicular homicide.
supremacy clause - ANSWERS-states that when laws conflict, federal law generally overrules state and local law. State law can be more restrictive than federal law, but it cannot undermine the federal standard.
Statutory law - ANSWERS-is written and enacted by Congress, state legislatures, or local governing authorities in response to a perceived need. Statutory law includes civil, criminal, administrative, and regulatory laws.
ordinance - ANSWERS-Statutes enacted by a municipal (city) or county government. Local regulations for the protection and well-being of the residents and property. Apply only to the geographical area of the county or city that enacted them. Most violations are not criminal in nature.
Mere suspicion - ANSWERS-is sometimes described as a hunch or gut feeling based on law enforcement training and knowledge.
pretext stops - ANSWERS-the officer stops the vehicle due to an equipment violation but really wants to investigate other, more serious criminal activity.
Proof beyond a reasonable doubt - ANSWERS-is the standard used to determine if a criminal defendant is guilty. Based on the facts of the case, there is no other reasonable explanation than that defendant committed the crime.
Constitutional law - ANSWERS-law defines the form of government Americans have established
arrest - ANSWERS-is defined as depriving a person of his or her liberty by legal authority.
corpus delicti - ANSWERS-Before a person can be charged with a criminal offense, the officer must have evidence that a crime has been committed. Meaning "body of the offense."
notice to appear - ANSWERS-is a written order that may be issued by a law enforcement officer in lieu of a physical arrest requiring a person accused of violating the law to appear in court at a specified date and time.
Florida's Stop and Frisk law, s. 901.151, F.S. - ANSWERS-requires probable cause before a weapons pat down is permitted.
Transferred intent - ANSWERS-is present when an intentional act harms an unintended second victim. For example, a person intending to shoot one victim misses and unintentionally strikes a second victim.
Fresh pursuit - ANSWERS-is a legal doctrine that permits a law enforcement officer to make an arrest of a fleeing suspect who crosses jurisdictional lines.
Sovereign immunity - ANSWERS-provides one of the most important protections for governmental employees and law enforcement agencies. It includes a list of circumstances and requirements that must be met before the state, a county, a municipality, or a law enforcement agency or any of its employees can be sued in a state tort action.
Vicarious liability - ANSWERS-occurs when one person or entity is held liable for the negligent actions of another person even though the first person or entity was not directly responsible for the injury.
Punitive damages - ANSWERS-an unlawful interference with the fundamental rights of another person, such as the rights to due process and equal protection under the law.
Compensatory damages - ANSWERS-are designed to compensate for the actual property damage, harm, or injury that the plaintiff suffers.
principal in the first degree - ANSWERS-a defendant who helped another person or persons commit or attempt to commit a crime and must be treated as if he or she had done all the things the other person or persons did
Proximate cause - ANSWERS-the legal phrase for the link between the breach of duty and the harm caused (damages)
Administrative Search - ANSWERS-Subjects of this type of search include students, public schools, people in government offices, government property (such as desks, lockers, and vehicles), people engaged in certain businesses or licensed activities, and people on probation or parole. These types of searches generally do not require warrants because they are for regulatory purposes and usually are not conducted by a law enforcement officer.
Theft, s. 812.014, F.S. - ANSWERS-1. The offender knowingly and unlawfully obtained or used or endeavored to obtain or use the property of another.
Trespass—In Structure or Conveyance, s. 810.08, F.S., Misdemeanor/Felony - ANSWERS-1. The offender, without being authorized, licensed, or invited, willfully entered or remained in any structure or conveyance, or, having been authorized, licensed, or invited, was warned by the owner or lessee of the premises, or person authorized by the owner or lessee, to depart and refused to do so.
Punishment for local ordinance - ANSWERS-The maximum penalty for violating a local criminal ordinance is a fine of $500 or incarceration in a county jail for a period of up to 60 days and/or both.
Fifth Amendment - ANSWERS-best known for prohibiting compelled self- incrimination. It also requires grand jury indictment for capital crimes and prohibits double jeopardy and deprivation of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. Law enforcement activities affected by this include interviewing
and arresting suspects and taking law enforcement action in violation of due process.
First Amendment - ANSWERS-include arrests for disorderly conduct and seizure of press materials such as cameras, tapes, and writing material.
Fourth Amendment - ANSWERS-prohibits unreasonable search and seizure and generally requires a warrant signed by an independent magistrate (judge). activities affected include law enforcement's entry into homes, vehicles, luggage, purses, or other places where a person has a reasonable expectation of privacy, including his or her person, and interference with people's right to possess and maintain control over their property. Law enforcement stops and arrests, including the use of force, are considered seizures and must meet the reasonableness requirement of this Amendment, which provides certain exceptions to law enforcement.
due process clause - ANSWERS-The Fourteenth Amendment expanded the application of the Bill of Rights to state and local governments as well. This was done by this part of the Fourteenth Amendment
Four basic classifications of intent - ANSWERS-general, specific, transferred, and criminal negligence
Sections 776.012 and 776.013 F.S. - ANSWERS-Sections 776.012 and 776.013 F.S. work in conjunction to allow all individuals to use reasonable and necessary force to defend themselves when faced with the imminent threat of unlawful force. The statutes allow an individual to use deadly force under two circumstances: if the individual has reason to believe that deadly force is necessary to prevent
