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70 Solved Questions on Introduction to Biology l - Exam 2 |, Exams of Biology

Material Type: Exam; Class: Biology 1 - Introduction; Subject: Biology / Biological Sciences; University: Texas Christian University; Term: Forever 1989;

Typology: Exams

Pre 2010

Uploaded on 12/13/2009

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Biol. 10504 Exam #2 Fall, 2009 70 questions
1. A geneticist introduces a transgene into yeast cells and isolates five independent cell lines in
which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is
expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all. Which is a likely explanation
for the lack of transgene expression in the fifth cell line?
(A) A transgene integrated into a heterochromatic region of the genome
(B) A transgene integrated into a euchromatic region of the genome
(C) The transgene was mutated during the process of integration into the host cell
genome
(D) The host cell lacks the enzymes necessary to express the transgene
(E) A transgene integrated into a region of the genome characterized by high histone
acetylation
2. The fact that RNA can have catalytic activity is important in thinking about prebiotic
evolution because it shows:
(A) how chickens came from eggs;
(B) that a molecule could have simultaneously evolved both informational and catalytic
functions;
(C) how proteins are synthesized;
(D) more than one of the above are correct;
(E) all of the above (a-c) are correct.
3. Up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing what structures in
the cell membrane?
(A) tyrosine-kinases receptors
(B) ligand-gated ion channel receptors
(C) growth factors
(D) G proteins
(E) cholesterol
4. Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon:
(A) occurs continuously in the cell
(B) starts when the pathway’s substrate is present
(C) starts when the pathway’s product is present
(D) stops when the pathway’s product is present
(E) does not result in the production of enzymes
5. Complementary bases in the DNA double helix are connected by _____ bonding:
(A) covalent,
(B) ionic,
(C) hydrogen,
(D) van der Waals.
(E) James
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Biol. 10504 Exam #2 Fall, 2009 70 questions

  1. A geneticist introduces a transgene into yeast cells and isolates five independent cell lines in which the transgene has integrated into the yeast genome. In four of the lines, the transgene is expressed strongly, but in the fifth there is no expression at all. Which is a likely explanation for the lack of transgene expression in the fifth cell line? (A) A transgene integrated into a heterochromatic region of the genome (B) A transgene integrated into a euchromatic region of the genome (C) The transgene was mutated during the process of integration into the host cell genome (D) The host cell lacks the enzymes necessary to express the transgene (E) A transgene integrated into a region of the genome characterized by high histone acetylation
  2. The fact that RNA can have catalytic activity is important in thinking about prebiotic evolution because it shows: (A) how chickens came from eggs; (B) that a molecule could have simultaneously evolved both informational and catalytic functions; (C) how proteins are synthesized; (D) more than one of the above are correct; (E) all of the above (a-c) are correct.
  3. Up to 60% of all medicines used today exert their effects by influencing what structures in the cell membrane? (A) tyrosine-kinases receptors (B) ligand-gated ion channel receptors (C) growth factors (D) G proteins (E) cholesterol
  4. Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon: (A) occurs continuously in the cell (B) starts when the pathway’s substrate is present (C) starts when the pathway’s product is present (D) stops when the pathway’s product is present (E) does not result in the production of enzymes
  5. Complementary bases in the DNA double helix are connected by _____ bonding: (A) covalent, (B) ionic, (C) hydrogen, (D) van der Waals. (E) James
  1. The X-ray diffraction experiments which figured importantly in deducing the structure of DNA were performed by: (A) Crick in Watson's lab, (B) Franklin in Wilkins’ lab, (C) Hartman in Hale's lab, (D) Franklin in Watson and Crick's lab (E) Wilkins in Franklin’s lab
  2. Synaptic signaling between adjacent neurons is like hormone signaling in which of the following ways? (A) It sends its signal molecules through the blood (B) It sends its signal molecules quite a distance (C) It requires calcium ions (D) It requires binding of a signaling molecule to receptor (E) It persists over a long period
  3. The primer is: (A) required during transcription since it is made by an RNA polymerase; (B) required only on the lagging strand; (C) required for the synthesis of each Okazaki fragment; (D) more than one of the above is correct; (E) none of the above are correct.
  4. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because: (A) Taq is a cool name; (B) it is inexpensive; (C) it makes DNA not RNA; (D) it is heat resistant; (E) it is heat sensitive.
  5. Testosterone functions inside a cell by: (A) acting as a signal receptor that activates ion-channel proteins (B) binding with a receptor protein that enters the nucleus and activates specific genes (C) acting as a steroid signal receptor that activates ion-channel proteins (D) becoming a second messenger that inhibits adenylyl cyclase (E) coordinating a phosphorylation cascade that increases glycogen metabolism
  6. Promoters are: (A) DNA sequences recognized as start signals for translation, (B) RNA sequences which are necessary for correct initiation of protein synthesis, (C) DNA sequences recognized as stop signals for transcription, (D) more than one of the above, (E) none of the above.
  1. If a plasmid is digested with the restriction enzyme EcoR1 and it has two recognition sequences for the restriction enzyme HindIII , how many pieces of DNA would be generated? (A) 0; (B) 1; (C) 2; (D) 3; (E) impossible to determine based upon this information.
  2. Ribosomes are composed of: (A) mRNA, rRNA, and protein, (B) two subunits, each consisting exclusively of rRNA, (C) two subunits, each consisting exclusively of protein, (D) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA, and protein, (E) two subunits, each consisting of rRNA and protein.
  3. PCR stands for: (A) Polymerase chain replication; (B) partial complete reaction; (C) polymerase chain reaction; (D) primer chain reaction; (E) polymerase complete replication.
  4. The role of amino acyl tRNA synthetases is to: (A) link amino acids to their tRNA molecules, (B) link nucleotides to their tRNA molecules, (C) bond amino acids by peptide linkages, (D) bond nucleotides by peptide linkages. (E) decipher the genetic code
  5. Which of the following is an example of an endonuclease: (A) restriction enzymes; (B) DNA polymerase; (C) helicase; (D) ligase; (E) more than one of the above.
  6. The following figure shows: (A) transformation of a plasmid into a bacterial host, (B) bidirectional flow of ions across membranes during photosynthesis (C) cell signaling involving steroid hormones (D) cell signaling mediated by gap junctions (E) cell signaling mediated by plasmodesmata

24. GTP:

(A) Is a precurser to RNA synthesis (B) Is a activator of G proteins (C) Provides energy at key steps during translation (D) All but one of the above is correct (E) All of the above (a-c) are correct.

  1. Charging refers to the process by which (A) a given amino acid attaches to a specific tRNA; (B) a specific tRNA enters the P site of the ribosome; (C) a specific mRNA is decoded; (D) amino acids are attached together to form proteins. (E) LeBron James demonstrates that he does not like you blocking his path to the basket.
  2. Steroid hormones: (A) bind to cell-surface receptors to transduce a signal into the cell (B) are able to pass through the cell membrane because they are small molecules (C) are able to pass through the cell membrane because they are hydrophilic (D) are able to pass through the cell membrane because they are hydrophobic (E) are able to pass through the cell membrane via pinocytosis.
  3. Histones are: (A) nucleic acids found in chromosomes, (B) proteins found in chromosomes, (C) nucleic acids found in the cytoplasm, (D) proteins found in the cytoplasm, (E) sounds made by a disgruntled fan.
  4. Which of these describe the lactose operon when lactose is absent: (A) RNA polymerase is bound to the promoter (B) The repressor is bound to the operator (C) The lacZ and other structural genes are being transcribed. (D) All of the above (E) All but one of the above (A-C).
  5. Muscle cells and nerve cells in one species of animal owe their differences in structure to: (A) having different genes (B) having different chromosomes (C) using different genetic codes (D) having different genes expressed (E) having unique ribosomes
  6. Protein degradation is mediated by: (A) capping, tailing and splicing of proteins (B) the addition of ubiquitin to the protein (C) proteosomes (D) nucleosomes (E) both B and C are correct
  1. Dimer formation is an important step in: (A) activation of G proteins (B) activation of receptor tyrosine kinases (C) activation of ligand-gated ion channel receptors (D) inactivation of G proteins (E) more than one of the above.
  2. If you were to observe the activity of methylated DNA, you would expect it to: (A) be replicating nearly continuously (B) be unwinding in preparation for protein synthesis (C) have turned off or slowed down the process of transcription (D) be very actively transcribed and translated (E) induce protein synthesis by not allowing repressors to bind to it
  3. Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone give you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to: (A) insert the fragments cut with X directly into the plasmid without cutting the plasmid (B) cut the plasmid with restriction enzyme X and insert the fragments cut with Y into the plasmid (C) cut the DNA again with restriction enzyme Y and insert these fragments into the plasmid cut with the same enzyme (D) cut the plasmid twice with restriction enzyme Y and ligate the two fragments onto the ends of the DNA fragments cut with restriction enzyme X (E) cut the plasmid with enzyme X and then insert the gene into the plasmid
  4. Which of the following are characterized by seven passes through the plasma membrane? (A) receptor tyrosine kinases (B) G protein-coupled receptors (C) G proteins (D) Both B and C are correct (E) All three (A, B, and C) are correct.
  5. DNA methylation, and histone acetylation are examples of: (A) genetic mutation (B) chromosomal rearrangements (C) karyotypes (D) epigenetic phenomena (E) translocation
  6. The following could be a single nucleotide subunit in a nucleic acid: (A) ATP, (B) ADP, (C) AMP, (D) cAMP. (E) methionine
  1. This binds to a site in the DNA far from the promoter to stimulate transcription: (A) enhancer (B) promoter (C) activator (D) repressor (E) terminator
  2. In PCR, the DNA is denatured by: (A) heat; (B) enzymes; (C) Taq polymerase; (D) primers; (E) pH.
  3. Which of the following describes the function of an enzyme known as Dicer? (A) It degrades single-stranded DNA (B) It degrades single-stranded mRNA (C) It degrades mRNA with no poly (A) tail (D) It trims small double-stranded RNAs into molecules that can block translation (E) It chops up single-stranded DNAs from infecting viruses
  4. How does a genomic library differ from a cDNA library? (A) A genomic library contains only noncoding sequences, whereas a cDNA library contains only coding sequences (B) A genomic library varies, dependent on the cell type used to make it, whereas the content of a cDNA library does not (C) A genomic library can be made using a restriction enzyme and DNA ligase only, whereas a cDNA library requires both of these as well as reverse transcriptase and DNA polymerase (E) The genomic library can be replicated but not transcribed (E) The genomic library contains only the genes that can be expressed in the cell
  5. Which of the following structures is coded for by the shortest (or smallest) sequence of DNA? (A) a tRNA having 75 nucleotides; (B) a mRNA having 40 codons; (C) a polypeptide composed of 30 amino acids; (D) impossible to determine from this information. (E) either B or C could be the correct answer
  6. The phosphate group in cAMP binds to the: (A) third and fifth carbons of the base (B) third and fifth carbons of the ribose sugar (C) third and fifth carbons of the deoxyribose sugar (D) fifth carbon of the sugar only (E) tRNA as an intermediate in charging.
  1. Which of the following describes cell communication systems? (A) Cell signaling only occurs in eukaryotes (B) Communicating cells are usually close together (C) Most signal receptors are bound to the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope (D) Lipid phosphorylation is a major mechanism of signal transduction (E) In response to a signal, the cell may alter activities by changes in cytosol activity or in transcription of RNA
  2. A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using: (A) RNA polymerase to transcribe the gene (B) a restriction enzyme to cut the gene into shorter pieces (C) reverse transcriptase to reconstruct the gene from its mRNA (D) DNA polymerase to reconstruct the gene from its polypeptide product (E) DNA ligase to put together fragments of the DNA that codes for a particular polypeptide
  3. Caffeine is an inhibitor of phosphodiesterase. Therefore, the cells of a person who has recently consumed coffee would have increased levels of: (A) phosphorylated proteins (B) GTP (C) cAMP (D) adenylyl cyclase (E) activated G proteins
  4. The following organisms may have RNA as their genetic material: (A) prokaryotes such as E. coli ;; (B) eukayotes such as humans; (C) some viruses; (D) more than one of the above; (E) none of the above.
  5. Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR? (1) The primers hybridize to the target DNA (2) The mixture is heated to a high temperature to denature the double stranded target DNA (3) Fresh DNA polymerase is added (4) DNA polymerase extends the primers to make a copy of the target DNA (A) 2, 1, 4 (B) 1,3,2, (C) 3,4,1, (D) 3, 4, 2 (E) 2, 3, 4
  1. Gene expression is sometimes altered in eukaryotes rather than prokaryotes because of which one of the following? (A) Eukaryotic mRNAs get 5’ caps and 3’ tails (B) Prokaryotic genes are expressed as mRNA, while eukarotic genes are not (C) Eukaryotic exons may be spliced in alternative patterns (D) Prokaryotes use ribosomes of different structure and size (E) tRNAs are rate limiting in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes.
  2. The sections of eukaryotic genes which are spliced out are called. The sections that are joined together are called: (A) mutons, regulons; (B) exons, introns; (C) ribozymes, exons; (D) introns, exons; (E) ribozymes, introns.
  3. An example of a purine nucleotide that could be a part of DNA is: (A) guanine; (B) deoxyguanosine; (C) deoxyguanine; (D) adenosine monophosphate; (E) none of the above.
  4. In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located? A) inner mitochondrial membrane B) plasma membrane C) thylakoid membrane D) A and C E) A, B, and C
  5. When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a by-product of which of the following? A) chemiosmosis B) splitting the water molecules C) reducing NADP + D) the electron transfer system of photosystem II E) the electron transfer system of photosystem I
  6. What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?

A) split water and release oxygen B) use ATP to release carbon dioxide C) use NADPH to release carbon dioxide D) transport RuBP out of the chloroplast E) synthesize simple sugars from carbon dioxide

  1. CAM plants keep stomata closed in daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they A) fix CO 2 into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells. B) use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO 2. C) fix CO 2 into organic acids during the night. D) use photosystems I and II at night. E) fix CO 2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells.
  2. A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are being absorbed by this pigment? A) blue, green, and red B) red and yellow C) green and yellow D) blue and violet E) green, blue, and yellow