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707 Jeppesen Private Pilot Test Guide
Questions
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on - ✔ ✔ 121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight? - ✔ ✔ Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.
What documents must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? - ✔ ✔ An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? - ✔ ✔ Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any - ✔ ✔ local law enforcement officer.
A private pilot acting as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current - ✔ ✔ medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only... - ✔ ✔ 30 days after the date of the move.
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of... - ✔ ✔ 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow the glider.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months... - ✔ ✔ at least 3 actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is - ✔ ✔ pilot in command
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to the regulation is... - ✔ ✔ an emergency
As pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation may you deviate from an ATC clearance? - ✔ ✔ In an emergency.
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? - ✔ ✔ File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
What best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? - ✔ ✔ Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while enroute; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Regarding passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? - ✔ ✔ The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during - ✔ ✔ taxi, takeoff , and landing.
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? - ✔ ✔ Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight - ✔ ✔ except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? - ✔ ✔ Sunset to sunrise.
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12, feet MSL up to and including 14,500 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during - ✔ ✔ that flight time more than 30 minutes at those altitudes.
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of US registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of... - ✔ ✔ 15,000 feet MSL.
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight when - ✔ ✔ over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited? - ✔ ✔ Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL
What is the lowest altitude permitted for aerobatic flight. - ✔ ✔ 1,500 feet AGL.
No person may operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than - ✔ ✔ 3 miles
An approved parachute constructed of natural materials must have been packed by a certified and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding - ✔ ✔ 60 days
An approved synthetic parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding - ✔ ✔ 180 days.
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? - ✔ ✔ When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.
Which is normally permitted when operating a restricted category civil aircraft. - ✔ ✔ Flight over a densely populated area.
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate - ✔ ✔ over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of - ✔ ✔ 10 miles
When approaching Lincoln Municipal from the west at noon for the purpose of landing in Figure 52, initial communication should be with - ✔ ✔ Lincoln Approach Control at 124.0 MHz.
You can obtain FAA advisory circulars at - ✔ ✔ searching for them at FAA.gov.
Where is Loup City Municipal located with relation to the city in Figure 52? - ✔ ✔ Northwest approximately 1 mile.
The landing distance available on Rwy 17 at Lincoln Airport in Figure 52 is - ✔ ✔ 5,400 feet.
The landing distance available on Rwy 32 at Lincoln Airport in Figure 52 is - ✔ ✔ 7,816 feet.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? - ✔ ✔ 60
FAA advisory containing subject matter related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? - ✔ ✔ 90
What information is contained in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP)? - ✔ ✔ Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points? - ✔ ✔ Unequal heating of the earth's surface.
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to - ✔ ✔ friction between the wind and the surface.
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by - ✔ ✔ cool, dense air moving inland from over the water.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a - ✔ ✔ heat exchange.
When there is a temperature inversion, you would expect to experience
- ✔ ✔ an increase in temperature as altitude increases.
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by - ✔ ✔ terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? - ✔ ✔ Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
What is meant by the term "dewpoint"? - ✔ ✔ The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the - ✔ ✔ air temperature.
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when - ✔ ✔ water vapor condenses.
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
- ✔ ✔ Evaporation and sublimation.
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass? - ✔ ✔ Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation.
What are characteristics of unstable air? - ✔ ✔ Turbulence and good surface visibility.
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic? - ✔ ✔ Smooth air.
The suffix "nimbus," used in naming clouds, means - ✔ ✔ rain cloud
Clouds are divided into four families according to their - ✔ ✔ height range
One of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is - ✔ ✔ a change in temperature.
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the - ✔ ✔ wind direction.
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of - ✔ ✔ stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
What is the definition of a complex airplane? - ✔ ✔ An airplane with retractable landing gear, flaps and a controllable-pitch propeller or FADEC
In order to act as pilot in command of a complex airplane, you must - ✔ ✔ receive and log ground and flight instruction in a complex airplane.
Where can the operating limitations for an aircraft be found? - ✔ ✔ In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings and placards, or any combination thereof.
Which of the following are required to be carried in the aircraft during flight? - ✔ ✔ FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM).
An annual inspection was performed on an aircraft June 13, 2018. When is the next annual inspection due? - ✔ ✔ June 30, 2019
How long does an airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid? - ✔ ✔ As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the Federal Aviation Regulations.
In addition to a validated airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? - ✔ ✔ Operating limitations and registration certificate
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, you should refer to the - ✔ ✔ aircraft maintenance records
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? - ✔ ✔ Annual and 100 hour inspections
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - ✔ ✔ 1359. hours
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3303 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3300 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - ✔ ✔ 3400 hours
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot before each flight? - ✔ ✔ Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? - ✔ ✔ When the ELT has been in use for more than one cumulative hour.
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? - ✔ ✔ When 50% of their useful life expires.
You discover inoperative equipment on an airplane that you are planning to fly. Under what conditions can you complete the flight under VFR? - ✔ ✔ The equipment is not required by FAR 91.205, an equipment list or KOEL, the VFR-day type certificate requirements, or an AD.
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive? - ✔ ✔ Aircraft maintenance records
What should an owner or operator know about airworthiness directives (ADs)? - ✔ ✔ They are mandatory.
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive (AD)? - ✔ ✔ Yes, if allowed by the AD.
Which operation would be described as preventative maintenance? - ✔ ✔ Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required? - ✔ ✔ The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance? - ✔ ✔ 14 CFR 43.7.
Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? - ✔ ✔ Private or commercial pilot.
Who is responsible for ensuring that airworthiness directives (ADs) are complied with? - ✔ ✔ Owner or operator.
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by - ✔ ✔ an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
Excessively high engine temperature will - ✔ ✔ cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with - ✔ ✔ too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
One purpose of the dual-ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for - ✔ ✔ improved engine performance.
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied? - ✔ ✔ The fuel/air mixture becomes richer
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to - ✔ ✔ decrease engine performance.
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting - ✔ ✔ a decrease in RPM then a gradual increase in RPM.
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be - ✔ ✔ more susceptible to icing.
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause - ✔ ✔ detonation.
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when - ✔ ✔ the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally
Detonation may occur at high-power settings as - ✔ ✔ the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
You suspect that your engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climbout after takeoff. Your initial corrective action would be to
- ✔ ✔ lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air change in advance of normal spark ignition is known as - ✔ ✔ preignition.
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges? - ✔ ✔ Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available? - ✔ ✔ The next higher octane aviation gas.
Filling the fuel tank after the last flight of the day is considered good operating procedure because this will - ✔ ✔ prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on - ✔ ✔ the circulation of lubricating oil.
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
- ✔ ✔ the oil level being too low.
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb? - ✔ ✔ Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating? - ✔ ✔ Enrichen the fuel mixture.
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller? - ✔ ✔ The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will - ✔ ✔ cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
V/SO is defined as the - ✔ ✔ Stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? - ✔ ✔ The elevation of the departure area.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to - ✔ ✔ The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected? - ✔ ✔ The altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator.
Which instrument will become inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged? - ✔ ✔ Airspeed
Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged? - ✔ ✔ Altimeter, airspeed and vertical speed.
Altimeter 1 in Figure 3 indicates - ✔ ✔ 10,
Altimeter 2 in Figure 3 indicates - ✔ ✔ 14,500 feet
Altimeter 3 in Figure 3 indicates - ✔ ✔ 9,500 feet
Which altimeter(s) in Figure 3 indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet? - ✔ ✔ 1 and 2 only
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates - ✔ ✔ true altitude at field elevation
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter? - ✔ ✔ Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than the true altitude.
What is true altitude? - ✔ ✔ The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
What is absolute altitude? - ✔ ✔ The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
What is density altitude? - ✔ ✔ The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
What is pressure altitude? - ✔ ✔ The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude. - ✔ ✔ When at sea level under standard conditions.
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs? - ✔ ✔ A 700 foot increase in indicated altitude.
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument? - ✔ ✔ Airspeed indicator.
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will - ✔ ✔ remain the same regardless of altitude.
What does the red line of an airspeed indicator represent? - ✔ ✔ Never exceed speed.
