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Role of Electron Transport Chain, Glycolysis & Cellular Respiration, Exams of Biology

Texas Christian University (TCU)Biology

Various aspects of cellular respiration, including the function of the electron transport chain, the stages of glycolysis, and the production of atp. It includes questions to test comprehension and identifies key concepts such as the role of nadh, the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-coa, and the stages of the citric acid cycle.

Typology: Exams

Pre 2010

Uploaded on 12/13/2009

gdwyatt
gdwyatt 🇺🇸

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BIOL 10504
EXAM I
9-30-08
(Pick the best answer from the choices given below.)
1. What is the function of the electron transport chain?
a. Transfer electrons to ATP
b. Generate a proton gradient
c. To phosphorylate proteins
d. To split water molecules
e. To attach ships to their anchors
2. Which of the following examples is not a use of ATP?
a. Transport of an ion against its gradient
b. Help an energetically unfavorable reaction occur
c. Control when a process might start or stop by phosphorylation of proteins
d. Aid in motor protein movement
e. All of the above are examples
3. Which of the following is true for fermentation but not cellular respiration?
a. Glycolysis only occurs in cellular respiration
b. ATP is only produced in cellular respiration
c. NAD+ is converted to NADH only in cellular respiration
d. Oxygen is not required
e. More than one of the above is true
4. Which of the following regarding the ENERGY INVESTMENT stage of
glycolysis is FALSE?
a. No ATP is generated
b. NADH is generated
c. Glucose is first converted to glucose-6-phosphate
d. 2 ATP is used to process one glucose molecule
-or-
e. Answer (e) if they are all true
5. In the breakdown of one glucose molecule, which of the following regarding the
ENERGY PAYOFF stage of glycolysis is TRUE?
a. Two FADH2 are generated
b. Four total ATP are produced by oxidative phosphorylation
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BIOL 10504

EXAM I

(Pick the best answer from the choices given below.)

  1. What is the function of the electron transport chain? a. Transfer electrons to ATP b. Generate a proton gradient c. To phosphorylate proteins d. To split water molecules e. To attach ships to their anchors
  2. Which of the following examples is not a use of ATP? a. Transport of an ion against its gradient b. Help an energetically unfavorable reaction occur c. Control when a process might start or stop by phosphorylation of proteins d. Aid in motor protein movement e. All of the above are examples
  3. Which of the following is true for fermentation but not cellular respiration? a. Glycolysis only occurs in cellular respiration b. ATP is only produced in cellular respiration c. NAD+ is converted to NADH only in cellular respiration d. Oxygen is not required e. More than one of the above is true
  4. Which of the following regarding the ENERGY INVESTMENT stage of glycolysis is FALSE? a. No ATP is generated b. NADH is generated c. Glucose is first converted to glucose-6-phosphate d. 2 ATP is used to process one glucose molecule -or- e. Answer (e) if they are all true
  5. In the breakdown of one glucose molecule, which of the following regarding the ENERGY PAYOFF stage of glycolysis is TRUE? a. Two FADH 2 are generated b. Four total ATP are produced by oxidative phosphorylation

c. Two NADH are produced d. CO 2 is produced e. More than one of the above is true

  1. NADH is NOT generated in which of the following stages? a. Energy payoff of glycolysis b. Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA c. Citric acid (Krebs) cycle d. Electron transport chain e. NADH is generated in all of the above
  2. Which of the following has the strongest pull for the electrons? a. Complex I of the electron transport chain b. Complex II of the electron transport chain c. Complex IV of the electron transport chain d. Oxygen e. Cytochrome c (cyt c)
  3. Which of the following does not occur during the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA? a. Generation of NADH b. Release of CO 2 c. Transport into the mitochondria d. Generation of ATP by substrate level phosphorylation e. All of the above occur
  4. How many ATP would be generated utilizing 4 NADH and 5 FADH 2 and the electron transport chain and ATP synthase? Assume each produces the highest number of ATP possible. a. 9 ATP b. 12 ATP c. 24 ATP d. 27 ATP e. 38 ATP
  5. Which of the following is the correct output from 1 turn of the citric acid cycle? a. 1 CO 2 b. 6 NADH c. 2 FADH 2 d. 2 ATP e. None of the above are correct
  6. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Glucose is phosphorylated to form Glucose-6-Phosphate during glycolysis b. Fructose-6-Phosphate is phosphorylated to form Fructose-1,6- bisphosphate during glycolysis

b. 3-Phosphoglycerate c. Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate (G3P) d. Pyruvate e. Glucose-6-phosphate

  1. Fatty acids are cleaved during  oxidation and enter the cellular respiration pathway as which intermediate? a. Acetyl-CoA b. 3-Phosphoglycerate c. Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate (G3P) d. Pyruvate e. None of the above
  2. Which of the following states is FALSE regarding utilization of carbohydrates as energy? Answer (e) if all are true. a. Some sugars are converted to Glucose-1-Phosphate prior to entering glycolysis. b. Fructose can enter as either fructose-1-phosphate or fructose-6-phosphate. c. Glucose-1-Phosphate is converted to Glucose-6-Phosphate which is an intermediate step in glycolysis. d. Some sugars can be broken down to G3P prior to entering glycolysis -or- e. All of the above are true
  3. Which of the following statements regarding the breakdown of proteins for energy is FALSE? a. Proteins can be used as an energy source, especially by carnivores and Texans. b. Proteins are first broken down to amino acids. c. Some amino groups are converted to acetyl-CoA and enter the Krebs cycle. d. Various amino acids enter at different stages of the citric acid cycle depending on their specific –R group. e. Some amino groups may be excreted by the body as waste.
  4. Which of the following would you expect to find the most glycogen stored in your body? a. Adipose (fat) cells b. Kidney c. Muscle d. Intestine e. We do not store glycogen, only plants do.
  1. If you wanted to force fermentation to occur over cellular respiration, at what intermediate would it be best to make sure no oxygen was present? a. Glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate b. Glucose-1-phosphate c. Pyruvate d. Acetyl-CoA e. You need oxygen for fermentation
  2. Identify this functional group. a. Carboxylic acid b. Hydroxyl c. Phosphorus d. Tetra oxy phosphorus e. Phosphate
  3. The hydroxyl group is attached to which carbon (give a number) in this deoxyribose sugar? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
  4. This an example of what kind of sugar? a. Monosachharide b. Disaccharide c. Triose d. Pentose e. More than one of the above is correct
  5. What kind of interactions do you see in the tertiary structure of a protein? a. Ionic bonds b. Disulfide bridges c. Van-der-Waal interactions d. Hydrogen bonds e. All of the above
  6. When we talk about -helices and -sheets, we are describing the ___________ structure of a polypeptide. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Quaternary
  1. How many turns around the Calvin cycle are needed to generate one new three- carbon sugar? a. Three b. Six c. Twelve d. One e. None of the above
  2. Where can organisms that use H 2 S as a source of electrons be found? a. High altitude environments b. Rain forests c. Thylakoids d. Deep sea hydrothermal vents e. Mars
  3. The overall equation for photosynthesis is most accurately represented by which of the following? a. 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O --> C 6 H 12 O 6 +6H 2 O + 6O 2 b. 6CO 2 + 12H 2 S --> C 6 H 12 O 6 +6H 2 O + 6O 2 c. 6CO 2 + 12H 2 O + Light --> C 6 H 12 O 6 +6H 2 O + 6O 2 d. Both A and B are correct e. 6CO 2 + 12H 2 S + 12H 2 O --> C 6 H 12 O 6 +6H 2 O + 6O 2 + 6S
  4. The light reaction occurs in what part of the chloroplast? a. The stroma b. The nucleus c. The nucleolus d. The electron transport chain e. The thylakoid membrane
  5. During photosynthesis ATP is produced in what reaction? a. The light reaction b. The Calvin cycle c. The Krebs cycle d. The dark reaction e. None of the above
  6. To generate one G3P requires: a. 1 CO 2 + 2 ATP + 1 NADPH b. 3 CO 2 + 6 ATP + 6 NADPH

c. 3 CO 2 + 9 ATP + 6 NADPH d. 3 CO 2 + 6 ATP + 9 NADPH e. None of the above

  1. ___________ is split in ______________ to generate electrons used to fill the electron hole in P680. a. H 2 S, the stroma b. H 2 O, photosystem I c. Light, photosystem II d. H 2 O, photosystem II e. NADPH, electron transport chain
  2. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding cyclic electron flow? a. It produces more ATP than non-cyclic electron flow b. It produces more NADPH c. It feeds the electrons from ferredoxin to the electron transport chain d. It produces less NADPH e. The electrons are cycled from photosystem I to the electron transport chain
  3. Which is the first molecule to accept the CO 2 during the Calvin Cycle? a. Ribulose bisphosphate b. 3-phosphoglycerate c. Bisphosphoglycerate d. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate e. Glucose
  4. In his experiments utilizing Drosophila, Thomas Morgan first discovered a. The mathematical principles behind inheritance b. Bacteria could transfer traits after being killed. c. Eye color was a sex-linked trait d. PCR e. The structure of DNA
  5. Frederick Griffith’s experiment involving the organism streptococcus pneumoniae demonstrated that a. Bacteria could pass traits to each other b. The passage of traits between bacteria could occur even after one of the bacterial strains was killed. c. Genetic traits were probably located on discrete molecules and hence could be passed between organisms. d. A non-virulent bacterial strain could be converted to a virulent bacterial strain. e. Griffith’s experiment demonstrated all of the above.
  1. DNA replication is described as being semi-conservative because a. Half of the parental strand is preserved intact in the new strand. b. One of the two daughter cells contains the intact parental double strand. c. All of the daughter cells DNA is brand new. d. More than one of the above is true. e. It is preferred by liberal Republicans.
  2. DNA replication in eukaryotes starts at a. The 5’ end b. The 3’ end c. The center of the chromosome. d. The origin of replication. e. More than one of the above is true.
  3. Which of the following statements regarding DNA replication (in prokaryotes AND eukaryotes) is TRUE? a. It begins at the end of the DNA b. It begins at the center of the DNA strand c. It progresses in both directions from the origin (bi-directional). d. All of the above statements are true. e. Both B and C are correct.
  4. Which of the following is NOT true regarding differences between DNA replication in eukaryotes and prokaryotes? a. Eukaryotic DNA is linear b. Prokaryotic DNA is shorter. c. Eukaryotic DNA is larger. d. Prokaryote DNA has multiple origins of replication. e. Prokaryotic DNA is circular
  5. In the figure below representing two strands of DNA base paired with each other, identify the functional group that would be present at the end of the shorter fragment marked ‘A’. Assume that both strands are antiparallel. a. Phosphate b. Hydroxyl c. Amino d. Methyl e. Both A and B are correct.
  1. Which of the following properties of DNA polymerase result in the replication of DNA via a leading strand and a lagging strand? a. DNA polymerase can replicate DNA by extending the phosphate group at the end of the primer. b. DNA polymerase needs a primer before replication can begin. c. DNA polymerase can only extend the hydroxyl group of the primer. d. More than one of the above answers is correct. e. DNA replication only occurs via a leading strand mechanism.
  2. In the figure shown in question 56, assuming the smaller line is a primer bound to the origin of replication, and based on what you know regarding the orientation of the primer, in which direction relative to the primer would the synthesis of the lagging strand proceed? Assume this is a large piece of eukaryotic DNA. a. A b. B c. Both directions would be replicated using a leading strand d. Both directions would be replicated via a lagging strand. e. Impossible to determine.
  3. What is the primer for DNA replication made of? a. DNA b. RNA c. Protein d. Lipid e. Latex
  4. The enzyme required to unwind the double helix prior to replication is known as a. DNA polymerase b. Helicase c. Ligase d. Primase e. Unwindase
  5. The enzyme required to seal the gap between two nucleotides when replacing the primer is known as a. DNA polymerase b. Helicase c. Ligase d. Primase e. Unwindase
  6. Which of the following from Whittaker’s 5 kingdoms are prokaryotes: (A) protista; (B) fungi; (C) plantae; (D) animalia;

(E) more than one of the above statements is true.

  1. The bacterial capsule; (A) surrounds spores and renders them more resistant to heat; (B) prevents desiccation; (C) inhibits phagocytosis; (D) both B and C are correct; (E) all of the above (A-C) are correct
  2. Which of the following reactions accurately describes the fermentation that occurs in making yogurt; (A) glucose →lactose; (B) lactose →glucose; (C) lactose→lactic acid; (D) lactic acid→lactose; (E) glucose→lactic acid
  3. Which of the following reaction is termed nitrogen fixation: (A) N 2 → NO (^) 3; (B) N 2 → NH (^) 3; (C) NH 3 → N (^) 2; (D) NO 3 → NO2; (E) NO 3 → N 2
  4. Our normal flora are most abundant in our: (A) bloodstream; (B) skin; (C) mouth; (D) stomach; (E) intestine
  5. The following bacterium was described in class as producing a particularly potent toxin: (A) Clostridium tetani; (B) the spirochaete that causes Lyme disease; (C) Bacillus anthracis; (D) Neisseria gonorrhoea; (E) Staphylococcus aureus
  6. Most plant and animal cells are approximately ___________ in size: (A) 1 M; (B) 1 cm; (C) 20 m;m; (D) 2 m;m; (E) 100 nm
  1. There are ___________ nanometers in a millimeter: (A) 10^2 (B) 10^3 (C) 10^4 (D) 10^6 (E) 10^9
  2. The term amphipathic refers to a molecule that is: (A) hydrophilic only; (B) hydrophobic only; (C) phosphorylated; (D) glycosylated; (E) none of the above
  3. Unsaturated lipids: (A) increase membrane fluidity; (B) decrease membrane fluidity; (C) have no effect on membrane fluidity; (D) have an effect that depends upon whether the organism is a prokaryote or eukaryote; (E) none of the above
  4. In transmembrane proteins, alpha-helixes tend to be: (A) on the extracellular side of the membrane; (B) on the cytoplasmic side of the membrane; (C) embedded in the hydrophobic portion of the membrane; (D) both A and B (E) found at an equal probability throughout and outside the membrane
  5. Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins: (A) enzymatic activity; (B) intercellular joining; (C) signal transduction; (D) all but one of the above; (E) all of the above (A-C) are functions of the plasma membrane
  6. Signal transduction occurs by: (A) pinocytosis; (B) binding of a signaling molecule to a phosphate group of a phospholipid in a membrane; (C) binding of a signaling molecule anywhere to the phospholipid in a membrane; (D) binding of a signaling molecule to a protein receptor; (E) none of the above
  1. One would expect to find the highest concentration of ribosomes associated with the: (A) Golgi apparatus; (B) rough ER; (C) smooth ER; (D) lysosomes; (E) chromatin
  2. Fusion plays an important role in: (A) phagocytosis; (B) generation of smooth ER; (C) generation of rough ER; (D) autophagy; (E) more than one of the above is correct
  3. What cellular compartment is the most acidic: (A) the nucleus because there is a lot of nucleic acid; (B) the rough ER because there many amino acids; (C) the smooth ER (D) Golgi apparatus (E) lysosomes
  4. The arrow to the left depicts: a) one instance of vertical gene transfer that generated mitochondria; b) one instance of horizontal gene transfer that generated mitochondria; c) one instance of vertical gene transfer that generated chloroplasts; d) one instance of horizontal gene transfer that generated chloroplasts; e) multiple mutational events that generated mitochondria.
  5. The following figure depicts: a) pili on a eukaryote; b) pili on a prokaryote; c) a capsule on a prokaryotes; d) a capsule on a eukaryote; e) none of the above.