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90 Solved Questions on the Biology Introduction - Test 1 |, Exams of Biology

Texas Christian University (TCU)Biology

Material Type: Exam; Class: Biology 1 - Introduction; Subject: Biology / Biological Sciences; University: Texas Christian University; Term: Forever 1989;

Typology: Exams

Pre 2010

Uploaded on 12/13/2009

gdwyatt 🇺🇸

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BIOL 10504

Exam II

11-4-08

Version A

1. All of the following are barrier defenses that protect the body against pathogens,

except:

a. Lysozyme

b. Normal flora (bacteria)

c. Tightly packed epithelial cells

d. Neutrophils

e. Keratin

2. Which of the following would be an example of the innate immune response?

a. Normal flora competing with pathogenic bacteria for nutrients and space

b. CD8+ T cells killing infected cells

c. Neutrophils undergoing phagocytosis of bacteria

d. Antibodies neutralizing viruses

e. CD4+ T cells secreting cytokines that stimulate B cells

3. Which of the following is an example of primary lymphoid tissue?

a. Tonsils

b. Thymus

c. Lymph nodes

d. Peyer’s patches

e. All of the above are examples of primary lymphoid tissue

4. All of the following cells arise from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells, except:

a. B cells

b. Red blood cells

c. T cells

d. Neutrophils

e. Epithelial cells

5. These cells are part of the innate immune response and differentiate into a

macrophages:

a. Neutrophils

b. Dendritic cells

c. CD4+ T cells

d. Eosinophils

e. Monocytes

6. Which of the following is a myeloid cell?

a. NK cell

b. Dendritic cell

Partial preview of the text

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BIOL 10504

Exam II 11-4- Version A

All of the following are barrier defenses that protect the body against pathogens, except: a. Lysozyme b. Normal flora (bacteria) c. Tightly packed epithelial cells d. Neutrophils e. Keratin
Which of the following would be an example of the innate immune response? a. Normal flora competing with pathogenic bacteria for nutrients and space b. CD8+ T cells killing infected cells c. Neutrophils undergoing phagocytosis of bacteria d. Antibodies neutralizing viruses e. CD4+ T cells secreting cytokines that stimulate B cells
Which of the following is an example of primary lymphoid tissue? a. Tonsils b. Thymus c. Lymph nodes d. Peyer’s patches e. All of the above are examples of primary lymphoid tissue
All of the following cells arise from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells, except: a. B cells b. Red blood cells c. T cells d. Neutrophils e. Epithelial cells
These cells are part of the innate immune response and differentiate into a macrophages: a. Neutrophils b. Dendritic cells c. CD4+ T cells d. Eosinophils e. Monocytes
Which of the following is a myeloid cell? a. NK cell b. Dendritic cell

c. Helper T cell d. Cytotoxic T cell e. Plasma B cell

All of the following are functions of cytokines, except: a. They can activate phagocytes b. They can activate B cells c. They can recruit other cells of the immune system d. They can form pores in the cell membrane of pathogens and cause cell lysis e. They can stimulate cytotoxic T cells
Which of the following regarding inflammation are true? a. Local swelling is due to increased vascular permeability (“leakiness” of the blood vessels) b. The secretion of cytokines from cells at the site of infection causes the recruitment of more leukocytes from the blood vessels c. Symptoms include redness, swelling, increased temperature and pain d. Chemicals are released from local mast cells and macrophages e. All of the above
What are memory cells? a. Long-lived T and B cells that protect against second and subsequent infections b. Phagocytes that kill the same pathogen with each second and subsequent infection c. Cells that are activated in true infections only and not during vaccinations d. Leukocytes that attack brain neurons and cause Alzheimer’s disease e. Immature macrophages
Cytotoxic T cells killing a pathogen or an infected cell is an example of: a. Innate immunity b. Humoral immunity c. Cell-mediated immunity d. All of the above e. None of the above
What is an epitope? a. The site on an antigen where the antibody binds b. The site on an antibody where the antigen binds c. A signaling receptor that binds pathogens d. A factor that coats pathogens and enhances phagocytosis e. A chemical messenger that leukocytes use to communicate
What contributes to the diversity of antibodies? a. Multiple V and J gene segments code for the V region of the light chain

c. Require antigens to be presented to them d. All of the above e. a. and b only

Lymphocytes that are destroyed due to their recognition of self/MHC proteins as foreign proteins is an example of: a. Clonal selection b. Clonal deletion c. Complement d. Humoral immunity e. Active immunity
All of the following are examples of passive immunity, except: a. An AIDS patient receiving antibodies that they are unable to make themselves for an infection b. Receiving anti-venom for a snake bite c. Receiving a vaccination for the flu d. A fetus receiving IgG from the mother e. Breastfeeding
What are hypersensitivities? a. Over-reactions of the immune response b. Pathogens that escape the immune response and cause disease c. The higher amount of antibodies that are produced in the secondary immune response d. The reaction of lymphocytes against self/MHC proteins e. Phagocytes that are unresponsive to cytokines
The major histocompatibility complex type I (MHC I): a. Is a glycoprotein on the cell surface that is involved in displaying antigens on the outside of the cell (antigen presentation) b. Presents antigens to CD4+ T helper cells and activates them to secrete cytokines that will stimulate other immune cells c. Presents antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells and activates them to infected cells d. a., b., and c. e. a. and c. only
Exposure of DNA to UV light causes the formation of a. Cytosine transversions b. Moles c. Scars d. Thymine Dimers e. NTPs
Which of the following is a potential mechanism for the formation of cancer?

a. The telomerase gene is inactivated. b. Tyrosine kinase receptors are mutated into a hyperactive form. c. The DNA repair mechanisms of the cell are defective. d. All of the above are potential mechanisms of cancer formation. e. Only B and C are correct.

An inactivating mutation in this gene has been associated with a very high risk of breast cancer. a. Tissue plasminogen activator b. BRCA c. Insulin d. Human growth hormone e. DMD
Which of the following statements is true? a. More than one codon can specify the same amino acid b. The genetic code is essentially the same in all animals c. Every codon specifies an amino acid. d. More than one of the above answers is correct. e. None of the above answers is correct.
Which one of the following statements is true? a. Bacterial do not have a nucleus b. In bacteria, transcription and translation can occur simultaneously. c. In eukaryotes, transcription and translation occur in different compartments. d. All of the above are correct. e. Only a and b are correct.
In the absence of these proteins RNA polymerase would not be able to bind to the start site of transcription. a. General transcription factors. b. Repressors c. Enhancers d. Operators e. Silencers
Repressors bind to sequences known as a. Operators b. Enhancers c. Repressons d. Operons e. Codons
What is an operon?

a. Base pair substitution b. Missense c. Nonsense d. Frame shift e. More than one of the above is correct

What is the ‘degeneracy’ in the genetic code? a. The first nucleotide in the codon is unimportant b. The fourth nucleotide in the codon may be changed without effect. c. The third nucleotide in the codon may often be changed without effect. d. The tRNA does not affect the protein made. e. Biological scientists.
Why does one cell in the adult organism become a hair cell while another becomes a skin cell? a. Because they express different genes. b. Because one contains the ‘spirit’ of a hair cell and the other does not. c. Because each cell type is determined before the embryo is fertilized. d. Because there is a little ‘homunculus’ in each sperm with a little human with hair. e. Because that was the ambition of that little cell when in the embryo.
Which of the following statement is TRUE about the regulation of tryptophan synthesis in bacteria? a. The trp synthetic genes are inactivated in the presence of tryptophan. b. The repressor binds to its recognition sequence on the operon and shuts it off. c. The repressor is activated by tryptophan and binds to DNA. d. The repressor does not bind to DNA in the absence of tryptophan. e. All of the above are correct.
Which of these statements is FALSE about enhancers? a. They are proteins that bind to DNA. b. They activate gene sequences that can be far away from the enhancer. c. They vary depending on the cell type. d. They are bound by activator proteins. e. They are major determinants of cell differentiation.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. The lactose breakdown genes are shut down by a repressor. b. The promoter that controls these genes is activated by the presence of lactose. c. Lactose binds to the receptor and induces it to shut down the promoter. d. In the absence of lactose the breakdown genes are not needed.

e. The lactose breakdown genes are regulated by an inducer.

How do histones control gene expression? a. Acetylation of histones opens up the chromatin structure and makes it accessible to the transcription machinery. b. Histones are broken down before transcription and are synthesized again after transcription. c. Deacetylation of histones open up the chromatin structure and makes it accessible to the transcription machinery. d. Histones do not play a role in gene expression. e. Histones bind to enhancers and activate transcription.
Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. All cells express the same proteins. b. Different cells produce different activator proteins. c. The same gene in different cells contains different activator binding sites. d. Activators have no effect on cell differentiation. e. More than one of the above is correct.
Gene expression can be controlled at the level of a. Chromatin packaging b. Transcription c. mRNA degradation d. Protein stabilization. e. All of the above.
These signal molecules bind to receptors in the cytoplasm (they can diffuse through the cell membrane because they are hydrophobic). a. Phospholipids b. Steroids c. Growth factors d. Insulin e. Odoriferous molecules
What is the function of the G-protein? a. To bind to GTP b. To activate the enzyme after being activated by the receptor c. To bind to the signaling molecule d. All of the above are correct e. Only a and b are correct
Infected cells secrete a hormone that travels a very short distance before it binds to receptors that activate the antiviral response in the surrounding cells. This kind of signaling is known as a. Endocrine signaling b. Paracrine signaling

c. Taste d. All of above e. Common sense

Which one the following is NOT an example of a ligand. a. NO b. Testosterone c. Insulin d. Cytokines e. They can all be ligands.
Which of the following receptors is responsible for nerve conduction and action potentials? a. G-protein receptors b. Tyrosine kinase receptors c. Steroid receptors d. Ligand gated ion channel receptors e. All of the above
Phosphate groups are taken off molecules by enzymes known as a. Phosphorylases b. Kinases c. Phosphatases d. Hydrolases e. Polymerases
The length of the human genome is approximately a. 1x10^6 base pairs b. 2x10^7 base pairs c. 3x10^9 base pairs d. 4x10^5 base pairs e. Unknown
Beadle and Tatum’s experiment was designed to test what hypothesis? a. That proteins came from RNA. b. One gene makes one enzyme c. That ribosomes were made of RNA and protein. d. Enzymes are activated by phosphorylation e. Mold can grow on stuff besides bread.
Look at the pathway shown below. It describes a pathway found in yeast cells that is required for the production of an essential compound D from simple precursors. Compound D is used to build the cell wall. In the absence of compound D the cells will die. Such metabolic pathways within the cell are known as _______________.

Enzyme 1 Enzyme 2 Enzyme 3 Compound A  Compound B  Compound C  Compound D a. Biosynthetic pathways b. Biological breakdown pathways c. Kreb’s pathways d. Beadle and Tatum pathways e. Cell signaling pathways

In the pathway shown above, each step is catalyzed by the enzymes indicated above the arrow. If there was a mutation in Enzyme 3, what kind of medium would the yeast be able to grow in? a. Medium supplemented with enzyme 1. b. Medium supplemented with compound B. c. Medium supplemented with compound C. d. Medium supplemented with compound D. e. Both a and d are correct..
In the cell, the energy for protein synthesis comes from what source? a. GTP b. ATP c. dNTPs (dATP, dTTP, dCTP, dGTP) d. NTPs (ATP, UTP, GTP, CTP) e. Nuclear power
The enzyme responsible for the attachment of the amino acid to the tRNA is known as a. tRNA acylase b. Amino acyl tRNAse c. Amino acyl tRNA synthetase d. Amino acid peptidase e. tRNA isomerase
Cessation of protein synthesis from an mRNA occurs when a. The terminator tRNA binds to the stop codon b. A protein (the release factor) binds to the stop codon c. The Ribosome runs out of energy for polypeptide synthesis d. The cell dies. e. The cell divides
What is a codon?

Enzyme 1 Enzyme 2 Enzyme 3

Compound A Compound B Compound C Compound D

b. Ribosomes c. RNA polymerase d. SNURPs e. More than one of the above is correct.

What is the modification of the part of the RNA molecule marked with an arrow known as? a. AAA addition b. Poly-guanylation c. Poly-ribosylation d. Poly-adenylation e. Poly-purination
During the elongation phase, a tRNA with a single amino acid attached to it is found in what site within the ribosome? a. The mRNA binding site b. The A site c. The E site d. The P site e. The amino acid attachment site
Which of the following mutations would NOT result in a frame shift? a. A single base pair deletion b. A single base pair insertion c. A two base pair deletion d. A two base pair insertion e. A three base pair deletion
____________ are an essential part of the splicing machinery of the cell. a. snRNPs b. TATAAT c. rRNA d. 7-methyl GNP e. More than one of the above
What is the function of rRNA? a. It carries information for synthesis of proteins. b. It carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis. c. It is a ribozyme required for peptide bond formation. d. It is a ribozyme involved in splicing. e. None of the above is correct

Which of following statements is FALSE? a. The small ribosomal subunit can bind to the mRNA in the absence of the large subunit. b. The initiator tRNA binds to the start codon. c. Peptide formation cannot occur before the large ribosomal subunit binds to the mRNA. d. The initiator tRNA sits in the P site of the ribosome. e. Protein synthesis requires energy from ATP breakdown.
Which of the following is the start codon? a. AUG b. UUG c. UGA d. AAG e. More than one of the above is the stop the start codon.
_________________ is an example of a recombinant protein (produced by recombinant techniques) use to break up clots during strokes. a. Insulin b. Human growth hormone c. Bt toxin d. Cholera toxin e. Tissue plasminogen activator
Dolly the cloned sheep was created by injecting DNA extracted from these cells into an embryo from which the nucleus had been removed. a. Mammary cells b. Embryonic stem cells c. Adult stem cells d. Bone marrow stem cells e. Liver cells
What makes DNA fingerprinting possible? a. The fact that each individual has a different number of chromosomes b. Nuclease enzymes do not cut human DNA c. There are single nucleotide changes in the DNA of each person that results in a different fragment pattern when it is cut. d. There are no similarities in DNA. Each person has a completely unique DNA sequence which can be used to identify that person. e. More than one of the above is correct.
The following technology was used as an example in class to discuss how future physicians can compare gene expression in normal and cancer cells to identify the mutation that caused the cancer. a. Gene therapy

a. Enzymes are insensitive to changes in pH. b. Enzymes can function at any temperature. c. Enzymes work via an induced fit mechanism. d. Enzymes are permanently changed by the reaction they catalyze. e. Enzymes can ignore the laws of thermodynamics with impunity.

Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Allosteric regulators bind to the enzymes at their active site. b. Allosteric regulators cannot stabilize the active form of the enzyme c. Allosteric regulators can bind to and stabilize the inactive form of the enzyme. d. Allosteric regulators bind to the substrates. e. More than one of the above is true.
Which of the following statements is TRUE? a. Competitive inhibitors and substrates can bind to the enzyme at the same time. b. Non-competitive inhibitors and substrates can bind to enzymes at the same time. c. Allosteric inhibitors and substrates can bind to the enzymes and be converted to products at the same time. d. Allosteric activators and substrates cannot bind to the enzyme at the same time. e. Catalysis does not involve a change in enzyme shape.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Feedback inhibitors bind to substrates and prevent their binding to the enzyme. b. Feedback inhibitors are products of a reaction. c. Feedback inhibitors work by binding to allosteric sites on the enzyme. d. Feedback inhibition is a way to stop a reaction once enough product is made. e. Feedback inhibition ends when levels of the product fall.
The energy for catalysis of reactions with an unfavorable G change comes from a. Induced fit of the substrates in the active site. b. Heat generated during the reaction. c. Conjugating ATP to the substrate d. Light e. Increasing the G.

90 Solved Questions on the Biology Introduction - Test 1 |, Exams of Biology

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