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AAAE ACE Security Training Course Modules 1-4 Questions and Answers
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What are the two major categories of pavement? ✔✔ Flexible and rigid What are some types of flexible pavement? ✔✔ Grass, dirt, gravel and asphalt Why are paved surfaces necessary at airports? ✔✔ To support the critical loads imposed on them; to produce a smooth, skid-resistant and safe-riding surface What is the benefit of using a rigid pavement such as Portland Cement Concrete? ✔✔ It is about half the lifetime cost of asphalt, with a service life of 30+ years versus 5- 15 years for asphalt. Concrete is more expensive up front though, so asphalt is common at low revenue airports such as GA. What are two major elements that make pavements deteriorate? ✔✔ weathering and aircraft loads For bearing strengths of 12,500lbs or greater, what method is used to express the effect of an individual aircraft on different pavements? ✔✔ Comparing ACN to PCN (Aircraft Classification Number-Pavement Classification Number) ACN less than or equal to PCN What does the Pavement Classification Number (PCN) represent to the operator/pilot? ✔✔ PCN is the maximum pavement bearing strength for unrestricted aircraft operations. What is the Load Classification Number (LCN) used to describe? ✔✔ Pavement bearing strengths less than 12,500lbs What are the five major categories of pavement distress? ✔✔ cracking, joint seal damage, disintegration, distortion, loss of skid resistance How far are landing distances increased on wet pavement? ✔✔ By 15 percent or more Where are wind cones located? ✔✔ at least one on the airport, lighted if night carrier operations occur; additional cones placed so that every takeoff and landing runway has a cone visible to pilots When must an airport operator conduct an airfield self-inspection? ✔✔ daily; when required by an unusual condition; immediately after an accident or incident How long must airfield self-inspection records be kept? ✔✔ 12 consecutive calendar months
How often must operations personnel be trained on self-inspection related activities and how long must training records be kept? ✔✔ training every 12 consecutive calendar months, records maintained for 24 months How long must a record of airfield condition NOTAMs be kept? ✔✔ 12 months What are four types of inspections? ✔✔ Regular scheduled; continuous surveillance; periodic; special How is safety oversight defined? ✔✔ those means and activities by which airport management ensures effective implementation of safety-related standards and procedures Why does an airport need a Safety Management System? ✔✔ to increase the likelihood that airport operators will detect and correct safety problems before those problems result in an aircraft incident. In November 2005, the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) required what? ✔✔ Required certificated international airports to establish an SMS What are the four pillars of the Safety Management System? ✔✔ policy/objectives, risk management, assurance, and promotion What are four key elements of airport safety policy and objectives? ✔✔ Safety program methods, processes, authorities and accountability What are the five phases of the safety risk management process? ✔✔ Phase 1: describe the system; Phase 2: identify the hazard; Phase 3: determine the risk; Phase 4: assess and analyze the risk; Phase 5: treat the risk What four items enhance an airport's ability to identify hazards? ✔✔ operational expertise; training in hazard analysis techniques; use of a hazard analysis tool; documenting the process What are four risk mitigation strategies? ✔✔ avoidance (stop or shift the operation), assumption (accepting the risk), control (minimize or eliminate the risk), transfer (shift risk to another area) What are four types of risks taken by airport operators? ✔✔ Informed, uninformed, benefit-driven, pointless What does safety assurance include? ✔✔ auditing and oversight
Deviations from part 139 are allowed in response to an emergency, but what reporting requirements exist in this situation? ✔✔ within 14 days notify the FAA Regional Airport Division of the nature, duration and extent of the deviation (in writing if requested) How soon before issuing an amendment to an Airport Certification Manual must the airport notify FAA? ✔✔ 30 days 14 CFR Part 119 ✔✔ Air Carrier and Commercial Operations Direct Air Carrier ✔✔ certificated domestic/foreign air carrier, air taxi or commuter air carrier that engages in the operations of aircraft under a certificate, permit or exemption issued by the DOT Where can you find safety procedures? ✔✔ CFRs and ACM Public Charter ✔✔ one-way or round-trip flight performed by a direct air carrier and sponsored by a charter operator Scheduled Air Carrier ✔✔ schedule containing departure location, departure time and arrival location Air Carrier Operations ✔✔ 15 min before takeoff; 15 min after landing What does safety oversight ensure? ✔✔ that an airport meets or exceeds the national industry standard What does a safety conscious organization utilize? ✔✔ Internal reporting system; Set of standards; Investigation and resolution of incidents or hazards; people trained to recognize unsafe conditions When must all discrepancies or items of noncompliance be corrected/resolved? ✔✔ before commencement of any air carrier service or GA activity Are accidents due to one event? ✔✔ No, Chain of Events Accident Prevention ✔✔ Identify hazards and eliminate, or eliminate chain of events leading up to the hazard PRevention ✔✔ Creates safeguard defenses to reduce the possibility of the chain of events from being completed What 3 things help "chain of event" links from forming? ✔✔ 1. Proper design of component system
What instructions are required in an AEP? ✔✔ bomb incidents and sabotage, hijacking and other unlawful interference with aircraft operations What is the primary purpose of the AEP? ✔✔ Delegation of authority; Assignment of responsibilities; Coordination of efforts by responding personnel; Orderly transition between normal and emergency operations Funcitonal Annexes ✔✔ plans organized around the performance of broad tasks or wide-scale operations; does not repeat the info of the Basic Plan of the AEP Sections of the AEP ✔✔ 1. Basic Plan
What other programs did teh Aviation Security and Transportation Act (ASTA) create? ✔✔ Brought back Federal Air Marshals; Airport perimeter security and access control; Establishment of pilot projects; 100% screening of checked bags (Dec 2002); Screening Partnership Program What is the Screening Partnership Program? ✔✔ airports have the option to opt-out of their TSA screeners, but TSA will then select the replacing private screening company, manage the contract, supervise and manage personnel, and monitor activities What are two ways that reduce wait time at airports? ✔✔ PreCheck and Known Crewmembers Transportation Security Officer (TSOs) ✔✔ conduct screening of passengers, carry-on and checked baggage; conduct travel document checks and serve as behavior detection officers Behavior Detection Officers (BDOs) ✔✔ use non-intrusive, behavior observation and analysis techniques to identify potentially high risk passengers Expert Transportation Security Officer/Bomb Appraisal Officer ✔✔ Provides guidance to Federal Security Director on issues involving explosives, improvised explosive devices (IEDs) and chemical, biological, radiological and nuclear threats. What is the Playbook? ✔✔ Based on using random antiterrorism measures, such as random checks of personnel operating in the cargo areas of an airport or other location and putting on a display of force with Federal Air Marshals, TSOs and K9s (Random Checks) Title 49 CFR Part 1542 ✔✔ Airport Security; rolls and responsibilities of Airport Security Coordinator, access control systems, personnel identification systems, contingency planning and incident response Title 49 CFR Part 1544 ✔✔ Domestic Aircraft Operator Security; procedures for law enforcement officers flying armed prisoner transport, flight crew security training and overall protection of aircraft Investigative and Enforcement Procedures (Part) ✔✔ 1503; investigations conducted by TSA for violating security regs; Persons can voluntarily disclose if they believe they have violated any terms - lesser penalties Protection of Sensitive Security Information (Part) ✔✔ 1520; Airport and Aircraft operators cannot release SSI information without approval of TSA When is an Airport Security Program required? ✔✔ All commercial airports
What must the airport operator do in a secured area? ✔✔ prevent and detect unauthorized entry; access control system must allow or deny access and distinguish personnel; Post signs of the perimeter of Secured Area; Address identification of ground vehicles What are the 3 requirements for a person to obtain a SIDA badge? ✔✔ Security Training; Background Check; Identification display/challenge If an individual only has access to the AOA, must they pass a criminal history background check? ✔✔ No; but tenants required to undergo a Security Threat Assessment - not required to wear airport approved identification What is the most common airport computerized access control system? ✔✔ Access Control and Alarm Monitoring System (ACAMS) What are the requirements for ACAMS? ✔✔ monitor access to secure and sterile areas, record and log events; Verify access to card holder; ACAMs does not have to monitor all access points to the airport (keys may be used); Access AOA - not required; Automatically log attempts to enter secure and sterile areas; operate non-stop Exclusive Area Agreement ✔✔ Aircraft operator has security program that assumes responsibility for certain security measures; must be approved by TSA and amendment in ASP Airport Tenant Security Program ✔✔ Similar to EAA but applies to tenants (FBOs) Is an individual disqualified for a SIDA badge if there was no disposition, guilty/not guilty because of insanity? ✔✔ No Can an airport issue temporary access to an individual? ✔✔ Yes, up to the Security Director How long are records of law enforcement action kept? ✔✔ 180 days How long are CHRC/STA records kept after termination of individual? ✔✔ 180 days and then distroyed How many law enforcement must an airport have? ✔✔ Enough personnel to respond to contingencies and incidents, respond to screening checkpoints respond to incident in support of civil aviation security programs What are the requirements for a law enforcement officer? ✔✔ Have arrest authority; identifiable; armed; completed a training program; trained int eh use of firearms,
courteous and efficient treatment of persons subject to inspection, detention, search, arrest; trained in responsibilities under ASP Security Officers ✔✔ unarmed security guards; airpot may use to provide perimeter security, staff vehicle entry gates, patrol airfield to enforce ASP, respond to computer alarms The AEP is a public document, what does this mean? ✔✔ ASP is SSI - anything SSI in the AEP should refer you to the ASP What are the steps of a threat? ✔✔ 1. Evaluate Threat 2. Initiate Appropriate Actions 3. Immediately Notify TSA GA accounts for how many flights in the US? ✔✔ 77% Is GA security regulated? ✔✔ No, TSA has gone with a guidance approach Explain GA security ✔✔ GA Hotline - centralized reporting system for suspicious activity on airfield; AOPA Airport Watch Program enlists GA pilots to watch for and report suspicious activity that might have security implications What is the recommended publication for GA security and what does it cover? ✔✔ Information Publication A-001; Security Guidelines for GA Airports 2004 Personnel; Aircraft; Airport/Facilities; Surveillance; Security Procedures; Communications and Specialty Operations Aircraft Operator Security Coordinator ✔✔ Aircraft Operator for airline that is the primary point of contact for TSA Ground Security Coordinator ✔✔ manages security functions for each passenger and cargo flight What are the 5 types of Aircraft Operator Security Programs? ✔✔ 1. Full 2. Partial 3. All-Cargo 4. Private Charger 5. 12- 5 FULL Aircraft Operator Security Program ✔✔ scheduled 61+/less 60 operating from/to Sterile Area screen passengers, baggage, cargo, designate an AOSC conduct fingerprint, carry Federal Air Marshals, restrict access to flight deck, respond to SDs and contingency and incident management plan PARTIAL Aircraft Operator Security Program ✔✔ scheduled 31 - 60 not in Sterile Area/less 60 not in Sterile area (AK) do not require screening of persons/property; airpots may require screening of passengers when they land
What are the five phases of the safety risk management process? ✔✔ Phase 1: describe the system; Phase 2: identify the hazard; Phase 3: determine the risk; Phase 4: assess and analyze the risk; Phase 5: treat the risk What four items enhance an airport's ability to identify hazards? ✔✔ operational expertise; training in hazard analysis techniques; use of a hazard analysis tool; documenting the process What are four risk mitigation strategies? ✔✔ avoidance (stop or shift the operation), assumption (accepting the risk), control (minimize or eliminate the risk), transfer (shift risk to another area) What are four types of risks taken by airport operators? ✔✔ Informed, uninformed, benefit-driven, pointless What does safety assurance include? ✔✔ auditing and oversight What does safety promotion involve? ✔✔ training, education, communication and continuous improvement What are a few communication methods that may be effective for a safety program? ✔✔ seminars, bulletins or notices, lessons-learned, and cross-tell What airports must comply with Part 139? ✔✔ airports serving scheduled air carrier aircraft designed for more than 9 passenger seats and unscheduled air carrier aircraft designed for at least 31 passenger seats, to include joint or shared use airports What airports are not subject to Part 139? ✔✔ serving passenger carrier operations solely as an alternate airport; those operated by the U.S.; airports in AK that only serve scheduled operations of small air carrier aircraft or times when not serving large air carrier aircraft; heliports What are the definitions large and small air carrier aircraft? ✔✔ Large: designed for at least 31 passenger seats; Small: designed for more than 9 and fewer than 31 passenger seats What is the definition of an air carrier operation? ✔✔ takeoff or landing to include 15 minutes before and after What is the definition of a Class I airport? ✔✔ serves scheduled large air carrier aircraft and can also serve unscheduled large air carrier aircraft and scheduled small air carrier aircraft
What is the definition of a Class II airport? ✔✔ serves scheduled small air carrier aircraft and unscheduled large air carrier aircraft What is the definition of a Class III airport? ✔✔ serves scheduled small air carrier aircraft What is the definition of a Class IV airport? ✔✔ serves unscheduled large air carrier aircraft What distinguishes a scheduled operation of an air carrier? ✔✔ advance offering of the departure location, departure time and arrival location. How long is an Airport Operating Certificate in effect? ✔✔ Until the certificate holder surrenders it or it is revoked or suspended by the Administrator. What provision could allow an exemption to Part 139 rescue and firefighting equipment requirements? ✔✔ if the airport enplanes less than 1/4 of 1% (0.0025) of the total number of passengers enplaned at all US air carrier airports Deviations from part 139 are allowed in response to an emergency, but what reporting requirements exist in this situation? ✔✔ within 14 days notify the FAA Regional Airport Division of the nature, duration and extent of the deviation (in writing if requested) How soon before issuing an amendment to an Airport Certification Manual must the airport notify FAA? ✔✔ 30 days 14 CFR Part 119 ✔✔ Air Carrier and Commercial Operations Direct Air Carrier ✔✔ certificated domestic/foreign air carrier, air taxi or commuter air carrier that engages in the operations of aircraft under a certificate, permit or exemption issued by the DOT Where can you find safety procedures? ✔✔ CFRs and ACM Public Charter ✔✔ one-way or round-trip flight performed by a direct air carrier and sponsored by a charter operator Scheduled Air Carrier ✔✔ schedule containing departure location, departure time and arrival location Air Carrier Operations ✔✔ 15 min before takeoff; 15 min after landing What does safety oversight ensure? ✔✔ that an airport meets or exceeds the national industry standard
How often is Movement Area training? ✔✔ Every 12 months If pavement failure occurs because the air1port allowed aircraft operations that exceed the pavement limitations, can federal funding be used to restore the pavement? ✔✔ No Inspection elements of pavement ✔✔ 1. Pavement Edges
What does the AEP address? ✔✔ emergencies within the authority and responsibility to respond; May represent threat to airport because of proximity; airport has responsibilities under local/regional emergency plans and mutual aid agreements Memorandums of Understanding (MOUs)/Memorandums of Agreement (MOA) ✔✔ relationship between on-airport emergency services and other mutual aid entities What are the four related actions to Comprehensive Emergency Management? ✔✔ Mitigation; Preparedness: Response; Recovery What are the 4 steps to developing an AEP? ✔✔ 1. Planning Team
Title 49 CFR Part 1542 ✔✔ Airport Security; rolls and responsibilities of Airport Security Coordinator, access control systems, personnel identification systems, contingency planning and incident response Title 49 CFR Part 1544 ✔✔ Domestic Aircraft Operator Security; procedures for law enforcement officers flying armed prisoner transport, flight crew security training and overall protection of aircraft Investigative and Enforcement Procedures (Part) ✔✔ 1503; investigations conducted by TSA for violating security regs; Persons can voluntarily disclose if they believe they have violated any terms - lesser penalties Protection of Sensitive Security Information (Part) ✔✔ 1520; Airport and Aircraft operators cannot release SSI information without approval of TSA When is an Airport Security Program required? ✔✔ All commercial airports Who must approve the ASP? ✔✔ Federal Security Director What is the ASP? ✔✔ Explains how the airport will comply with Part 1542 What are the three types of security programs at commercial airports, and how are they determined? ✔✔ 1. Complete 2. Supporting 3. Partial ; determined based on category of the airport What are the types of categories for the classification of airports? ✔✔ Category X: largest, busiest airports Category I: medium hub Category II: small hub Category III: non-hub Category IV: seasonally operated commercial Complete Security Program ✔✔ Category X-III Supporting Security Program ✔✔ Category IV; law enforcement requirements, record keeping, {contingency plans}, SSI and incident management Partial Security Program ✔✔ Category IV; law enforcement requirements, record keeping, SSI and incident management Can the TSA change an individual airport category as it relates to security measures? ✔✔ Yes, they can also require a customized ASP Who issues Information Circulars? ✔✔ TSA to inform Airport Ops of security concerns
When are Security Directives issued? ✔✔ By TSA if further measures than IC needed; SSI information What does a SD require? ✔✔ Airport must acknowledge the receipt of the SD (time and how they will comply) and the ASP must accommodate changing conditions If an airport operator discovers a change in condition that doesn't provide the level of security defined in the ASP, what must they do? ✔✔ Notify TSA within 6 hours and get verbal approval of interim measures to be maintained What must be done if a procedure change will last less than 60 days and what must be done for a procedure change that will last more than 60 days? ✔✔ 1. written notification to TSA within 72 hours of change