Download AANP FNP Board Exam Latest Exam 2025-2026 With Correct Verified Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
AANP FNP Board Exam Latest Exam 2 025 - 2026
With Correct Verified Answers
USPSTF breast cancer screening recommendations (2024) - correct answer>>Baseline mammo at 40 years old Screen q2 years until 74 years old USPSTF cervical cancer screening recommendations (2018) - correct answer>>Baseline pap at 21 years old Screen q3 years until 65 years old Alternative screen for age 30 - 65 high risk HPV testing q5 years Do not screen if hysterectomy and no hx of precancer or cervical cancer If hx of ca, screen for 20 years after surgery USPSTF lung cancer screening recommendations (2021) - correct answer>>Only for Age 50 - 80 years old W/ 20 pack year smoking hx OR quit <15 years ago
- Annual screening w/ LDCT (low dose computed tomography) USPSTF prostate cancer screening recommendations (2018) - correct answer>>PSA screening ages 55 - 69 years old screening should be individualized USPSTF testicular cancer screening recommendations (2011) - correct answer>>Routine screening not recommended USPSTF colorectal cancer screening recommendations (2021) - correct answer>>Baseline screening age 45 years - 75 years old w/ high-sensitivity fecal occult blood test annually OR Cologuard every 3 years OR sigmoidoscopy every 5 years OR colonoscopy every 10 years USPSTF skin cancer screening recommendations (2016) - correct answer>>Educate fair- skinned persons to avoid sunlight (10 am - 3 pm) and use sunblock > SPF 15
*insufficient evidence for visual skin exam USPSTF tobacco smoking recommendations (2020) - correct answer>>Ask ALL adults about tobacco use, advise to stop smoking, provide smoking cessation USPSTF fall prevention in community-dwelling older adults (2018) - correct answer>>Exercise interventions to prevent falls in adults at increased risk > 65 years old USPSTF ovarian cancer screening recommendations (2018) - correct answer>>Routine screening not recommended High-risk are screened by specialist (BRCA mutation, family hx breast/ovarian ca) refer to genetic counseling USPSTF abdominal aortic aneurysm screening recommendations (2019) - correct answer>>Age 65- 75 years old for men who have ever smoked One time screening (US abd) USPSTF statin use for primary prevention of CVD in adults - correct answer>>Prescribe statin for primary prevention of CVD for adults Age 40 - 75 yrs old w/ 1 or more risk factors
- dyslipidemia
- DM II
- HTN
- smoking
- 10 year ASCVD risk score > 10% USPSTF prevention of HIV (2023) - correct answer>>Prescribe PEP to persons at increased risk of HIV acquisition USPSTF prediabetes and DM II (2021) - correct answer>>Screen for prediabetes and DM II in adults age 35 - 70 years old w/ overweight or obesity USPSTF osteoporosis screening recommendations (2018) - correct answer>>Screen for osteoporosis w/ bone measurement testing in
- postmenopausal women < 65 at increased risk
Crawls Abnormal - Does not bear weight w/ support, unable to sit with help, persistence of primitive reflexes Developmental milestones 12 mo - correct answer>>Supports own weight Walks with hands held Parallel play Separation anxiety Can crawl up or down stairs Starts to cruise (moves from one furniture to other) Abnormal - Unable to support own weight, lack of babbling, No response to smiles, poor eye contact, loss of previously learned skills Developmental milestones 2 years - correct answer>>Walks Runs Climbs up and down stairs with rails Speech mostly understood Follows 2-3 step directions Copies a line *two word phrases understood by family members Abnormal - unable to speak meaningful 2 word sentences. Does not understand simple commands. Developmental milestones 3 years - correct answer>>Speaks 3-5 word sentences Copies a circle *Rides tricycle Builds towers of more than six blocks Runs and climbs easily *3-5 word sentences understood by strangers Abnormal - unclear hard to understand speech. unable to understand simple commands. Falls down often, No eye contact. Developmental milestones 4 years - correct answer>>Copies a cross Draws person with 3 body parts Plays mom and dad Hops and stands on one foot up to 2 seconds
*Cooperates with other children Names some colors and numbers Can dress self Abnormal - unable to speak in full sentences, inability to skip, run, hop. Cannot put on clothes without help. Unable to play with other kids Developmental milestones 5 years - correct answer>>Can draw a person with 6 body parts Counts 10 or more things Is aware of gender speaks clearly Abnormal - unusually withdrawn, not active, touble focusing on one activity for > 5 minutes car safety, toddlers - correct answer>>Toddlers placed in back seat in a forward facing safety seat with harness until height and weight limits outgrown Children < 12 years should be restrained in the back seat Early signs of autism and when to begin screening - correct answer>>Begin screening at age 18 months
- Des not point/wave/grasp/reach by 12 mo
- No babbling by 12 mo
- Does not say single words by 16 mo
- Does not say 2 word phrases on their own by 24 mo
- Loss of language or social skills at any age Neuroblastoma presentation and diagnosis - correct answer>>presentation - abdominal mass that is fixed, firm, irregular, and frequently crosses the midline usually adrenal medulla May be accompanied by weight loss, fever, subcutaneous nodules Ultrasound is initial imaging choice Refer to pediatric surgeon
Periorbital cellulitis - correct answer>>More common than orbital cellulitis. Infection of anterior portion of eyelid that does not involve the orbit or eyes. Young child c/o red, swollen, eyelids and eye pain. eye movements do not cause pain, EOM exam normal. Refer to ED Red flags for child abuse - correct answer>>Posteriomedial rib fractures Metaphyseal avulsion fractures bruises or fractures in various stages of healing delay in seeking care Injuries inconsistent with explanation Toilet training usually begins - correct answer>> 2 - 3 years of age most master by age 3- 4 *children btw 5-6 years of age w/ primary nocturnal enuresis should be evaluated and interventions started Features of down syndrome - correct answer>>round face that appears flat (decreased anterior-posterior diameter), palpebral fissures, low-set ears, macroglossia, short neck, short fingers, small palms, braod hand with simian crease Down syndrome risks - correct answer>>intellectual disability, congenital heart defects, feeding difficulties, congenital hearing loss, thyroid disease, cataracts, sleep apnea, early onset alzheimers Avoid contact sports, trampoline d/t cervical spine instability Features of fetal alcohol syndrome - correct answer>>microcephaly, short palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, flat nasal bridge, thin upper lip, smooth philtrum, ears undeveloped Risks for fetal alcohol syndrome - correct answer>>neurocognitive and behavioral problems Cryptorchidism - correct answer>>undescended testicles Exam - warm room, massage inguinal canal
Increased risk of testicular ca if testicles not removed from abdomen Surgical correction necessary w/in 1st year of life Gonococcal ophtlamia neonatorum - correct answer>>s/s 2- 5 days after birth, with infection spreading rapidly leading to blindness. injected red conjunctiva w/ profuse purulent discharge and swllen eyelids Also test for chlamydia, gonorrhea, herpes simplex Tx - high dose IV or IM cefotaxime Prophylaxis - 0.5% erythromycin ointment Chlamydial ophthalmia neonatorum - correct answer>>s/s 4-10 days after birth. red eyelids, profuse watery discharge that becomes purulent. R/o chlamydial pneumonia Tx w/ oral erythromycin *0.5% erythromycin ointment does not prevent chlamydial conjunctivitis Chlamydial PNA - correct answer>>Infant with frequent cough, bibasilar rales, tachypnea, hyperinflation and diffused infiltrates on cxr Tx - erythromycin QID x 2 weeks Prevention of SIDS - correct answer>>Position infants on backs; use firm sleep surface, encourage breastfeeding and immunizations, room share w/o bedsharing, offer pacifier, avoid soft objects and loose bedding in sleep area, smoke exposure, and overheating What is considered excessive newborn weight loss - correct answer>>Beyond 10% Most lose 5-7% and should be regained within 10 - 14 days. Dehydration in an infant - correct answer>>weak, rapid pulse, tachypnea, parched mucous membranes, anterior fontanelle markedly sunken, skin tenting, cool skin, acrocyanosis, anuria, change in LOC Refer to ED for IV hydration
Nevus Flammeus (Port wine stain) - correct answer>>pink to red flat stain like lesion on upper and lower eyelids. Refer to pediatric ophthalmologist to r/o congenital glaucoma. newborn laboratory tests - correct answer>>TSH, PKU, sickle cell, anema (9-12 mo) Lead (age (12 and 24 mo) Birth weight 6 mo and 12 mo - correct answer>>Birth weight doubles 6 mo and triples at 12 mo caput succedaneum vs cephalohematoma - correct answer>>Caput Succedaneum- soft tissue swelling, that can cross suture lines Cephalohematoma- subperiosteal hemorrhage that does NOT cross suture lines. Avoid cows milk for first ___ mo of life - correct answer>>12 mo can cause GI bleeding and iron deficiency anemia Exclusively breastfeeding should supplement with - correct answer>>vitamin D Newborn Reflexes - correct answer>>Plantar reflex, palmar reflex, moro reflex, step reflex, blink reflex, tonic neck reflex, rooting reflex primitive reflexes usually disappear by 3-4 mo Vaccines pediatrics tips - correct answer>>Do not give Varicella and MMR vaccine < 12 mo Youngest age for flu is 6 mo Only vaccine at birth is hep B If HBsAg positive mother, give neonate hep B immunoglobulin and hep B vaccine Do not use DTap if 7 years or older Give Tdap at 11 - 12 years as booster Meningococcal vaccine (MenACWY) at 11- 12
infant can be vaccinated even with mild illness - low grade fever, cold, runny nose, cough, otitis media or mild diarrhea pathologic jaundice - correct answer>>jaundice within first 24 hours
- evaluate for sepsis, TORCH infection, occult hemorrhage If jaundice in infant after 2 weeks - requires eval
- r/o sepsis, hemolytic disease, metabolic d/o, intestinal obstruction Physiologic jaundice - correct answer>>starts after 24 hours and usually clears up within 2 - 3 weeks. other nonpathologic jaundice - breast milk jaundice (3 weeks, clears in 1 mo or more) treatment of neonatal jaundice - correct answer>>check bilirubin if suspected pathologic, order serum fractionated bilirubin level, Coombs test, cbc, reticulocyte, periperal smear keep baby well hydrated with breast milk or formula first line treatment - phototherapy infant colic rule of 3s - correct answer>>The goal when evaluating an infant with colic is to rule out conditions causing pain and/or discomfort, infections, environment, and formula "allergy." ■ Crying and irritability lasting a total of 3 hours a day in an infant younger than 3 months. ■ Occurs more than 3 days in a week and crying lasts more than 3 hours a day. ■ Crying usually occurs at the same time each day. Usually resolves by 3 to 4 months. Coarctation of the aorta - correct answer>>neonate is pale, irritable, dyspneic, diaphoretic. Absence or delay of femoral pulse compared with brachial pulse Order echo EKG, cxr Developmental dysplasia of the hip - correct answer>>asymmetry of thigh/gluteal folds positive barlow and ortolani test order hip ultrasound and refer to orthopedic specialist Kawasaki Disease - correct answer>>High fever up to 104.0 for 5 or more days
Acute rheumatic fever with carditis (worsens condition, inflammation) mitral valve prolapse (risk of sudden cardiac death) Fever, pink eye, infectious diarrhea treatment for absence seizures (pediatric) - correct answer>>brief episodes during which child stops and stares. also called petit mal Ethosuximide and refer to pediatric neurologist Still's murmur - correct answer>>benign systolic murmur having vibratory or musical quality, louder in supine position or with fever, minimal radiation grade 1-2 intensity, most common in school age, resolves in adolescence HPV vaccine - correct answer>>can start as early as age 9 - 14 years with two doses if after 15 years - 3 doses needed Fragile X - correct answer>>child with macrocephaly, global developmental delays. Skills and behavior acquisition slow. Hyperactive behavior, learning disabilities. Highly correlated with autism and anxiety Long face with prominent forehead, jaw, and large or protruding ears. Large body with flexible flat feet. Hand foot mouth disease - correct answer>>acute onset of fever, sore throat, headache, and anorexia. Multiple small blisters on hands feet, and rectum. Ulcers inside mouth, throat, tonsils, and tongue. Child complains of sore throat and mouth pain Caused by coxsackievirus Self-limiting, recovery within 5-7 days Impetigo rash - correct answer>>honey-colored crusted lesions Fragile bullae (bullous type) Measles - correct answer>>Koplick's spots (small white papules) inside cheeks by rear molars.
Erythematous maculopapular rash beginning on face, and spreads from head to feet, spares palms and soles varicella rash - correct answer>>generalized rash in different stages - papules - vesicles - pustules- crusts Scarlet fever rash - correct answer>>sandpaper rash with sore throat Molluscum contagiosum - correct answer>>Smooth waxlike round papules ranging in size 2-5 mm. central umbilication with white plug Scabies - correct answer>>maculopapular rash in interdigital webs of hands, feet, waist, axillae, and groin Tanner stages girls - correct answer>>1. prepuberty
- breast bud, few straight fine hairs
- breast and areola one mound; hair dark, coarse, starts to curl
- Breast and areola secondary mound; hair thicker, curly, darker and coarse
- adult pattern Tanner stages boys - correct answer>>1. prepuberty
- enlargement of testes, scrotal rugae; few straight fine hairs
- penis lengthens; hair dark, coarse and starts to curl
- penis thickens; hair curly, thicker, darker, coarse
- adult pattern no parental consent is necessary for the following - correct answer>>Contraception STD treatment Dx and management of pregnancy Emancipated minor - correct answer>>legally married active duty in armed forces Confidentiality can be broken in the following - correct answer>>gunshot wounds and stab wounds child abuse SI or attempt HI or intent
kneeling, jumping, climbing up stairs. Improves with rest and avoidance of aggravating activity. resolves spontaneously within few weeks to months. r/o avulsion fracture of the tibial tubercle if posttrauma Caused by repetitive stress on patellar tendon by the quadriceps muscle tx RICE, NSAIDs or tylenol for pain, quadriceps strengthening and quad/hamstring stretches Klinefelter syndrome - correct answer>>XXY. One of the primary causes of primary hypogonadism. Testicles small and firm with small penis. Tall stature, wide hips, reduced facial and body hair, high risk of osteoporosis. Turner syndrome - correct answer>>A chromosomal disorder in females in which either an X chromosome is missing, making the person XO instead of XX, or part of one X chromosome is deleted. Congenital lymphedema of hands and feet, webbed neck, high arched palate, short fourth metacarpal. short stature, ovarian failure, cardiovascular and renal issues, ear malformations, amenorrhea
