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ACLS Exam 2025 Version C Questions and Answers (verified answers), Exams of Nursing

Firelands Regional Medical Center School of NursingNursing

ACLS Exam 2025 Version C Questions and Answers (verified answers)

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/08/2025

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ACLS Exam Version C
1. What is the recommended compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults?
A. 1 inch (2.5 cm)
B. At least 2 inches (5 cm)
C. At least 3 inches (7.5 cm)
D. Approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm)
Answer: B
Rationale: Effective chest compressions require a depth of at least 2 inches to ensure
adequate blood flow.
2. When do you administer epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
A. Every 3โ€“5 minutes
B. Once after the first shock
C. Every 1โ€“2 minutes
D. Only after 3 shocks
Answer: A
Rationale: Epinephrine is given every 3โ€“5 minutes during cardiac arrest, regardless of
rhythm.
3. What is the first drug of choice for stable narrow-complex supraventricular
tachycardia (SVT)?
A. Atropine
B. Amiodarone
C. Adenosine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: C
Rationale: Adenosine is effective for terminating SVT due to reentrant pathways.
4. A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. What is your next step after
initiating CPR?
A. Synchronized cardioversion
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Download ACLS Exam 2025 Version C Questions and Answers (verified answers) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

ACLS Exam Version C

  1. What is the recommended compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults? A. 1 inch (2.5 cm) B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) C. At least 3 inches (7.5 cm) D. Approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm) Answer: B Rationale: Effective chest compressions require a depth of at least 2 inches to ensure adequate blood flow.
  2. When do you administer epinephrine during cardiac arrest? A. Every 3โ€“5 minutes B. Once after the first shock C. Every 1โ€“2 minutes D. Only after 3 shocks Answer: A Rationale: Epinephrine is given every 3โ€“5 minutes during cardiac arrest, regardless of rhythm.
  3. What is the first drug of choice for stable narrow-complex supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)? A. Atropine B. Amiodarone C. Adenosine D. Epinephrine Answer: C Rationale: Adenosine is effective for terminating SVT due to reentrant pathways.
  4. A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. What is your next step after initiating CPR? A. Synchronized cardioversion

B. Atropine C. Defibrillation D. Adenosine Answer: C Rationale: Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm; immediate defibrillation is required.

  1. What is the recommended initial energy dose for biphasic defibrillation in an adult? A. 120โ€“200 joules B. 100โ€“150 joules C. 360 joules D. 50 joules Answer: A Rationale: For biphasic defibrillators, the recommended range is 120โ€“200 J.
  2. During CPR, when should you switch compressors to prevent fatigue? A. Every 10 minutes B. Every 5 minutes C. Every 2 minutes D. Every 30 compressions Answer: C Rationale: Switching every 2 minutes helps maintain high-quality compressions.
  3. What rhythm requires synchronized cardioversion? A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Asystole C. Pulseless VT D. Unstable atrial fibrillation Answer: D Rationale: Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
  1. What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia? A. 0.5 mg B. 1 mg C. 3 mg D. 5 mg Answer: C Rationale: The max cumulative dose of atropine is 3 mg.
  2. Which is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest? A. Hypothermia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hypoalbuminemia D. Hyporeflexia Answer: A Rationale: The Hโ€™s and Tโ€™s include hypothermia as a reversible cause.
  3. What is the recommended ventilation rate for a patient with a pulse and advanced airway? A. 12โ€“20 breaths/min B. 10โ€“12 breaths/min C. 1 breath every 6 seconds D. 30 breaths/min Answer: C Rationale: When an advanced airway is in place, give 1 breath every 6 seconds (10/min).
  4. What is the correct dose of amiodarone for refractory VF/pulseless VT? A. 150 mg IV B. 300 mg IV bolus, then 150 mg C. 1 mg/min D. 6 mg IV push

Answer: B Rationale: Initial dose is 300 mg IV push; may repeat 150 mg once.

  1. What is the preferred route of drug administration during cardiac arrest? A. Intraosseous B. Endotracheal C. Intramuscular D. Intravenous Answer: D Rationale: IV access is preferred; IO is second-line.
  2. After ROSC, what is the target oxygen saturation range? A. 85%โ€“90% B. 94%โ€“99% C. 90%โ€“93% D. >99% Answer: B Rationale: Maintain SpOโ‚‚ between 94% and 99% post-resuscitation.
  3. Which rhythm is not shockable? A. Ventricular fibrillation B. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia C. Asystole D. Torsades de Pointes Answer: C Rationale: Asystole is not a shockable rhythm.
  4. What is the most appropriate intervention for asystole? A. Defibrillation B. Transcutaneous pacing C. High-quality CPR and epinephrine D. Cardioversion

D. Dopamine Answer: B Rationale: Epinephrine increases coronary and cerebral perfusion during CPR.

  1. What rhythm is treated with immediate defibrillation? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Atrial fibrillation C. Ventricular fibrillation D. First-degree heart block Answer: C Rationale: VF is a shockable, life-threatening rhythm.
  2. What is the next step after delivering a shock for VF/VT? A. Reassess the pulse B. Give amiodarone C. Resume CPR immediately D. Give oxygen Answer: C Rationale: Resume CPR immediately after shock; do not delay for rhythm check.26. What is the most common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA)? A. Hyperglycemia B. Coronary artery disease C. Hypovolemia D. Pulmonary edema Answer: C Rationale: Hypovolemia is one of the most frequent reversible causes of PEA.
  3. Which action should you take immediately after the defibrillator delivers a shock? A. Check the ECG rhythm B. Reassess the patient C. Start chest compressions

D. Administer amiodarone Answer: C Rationale: High-quality CPR should resume immediately to maintain perfusion.

  1. What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest? A. 0.1 mg IV B. 1 mg IV every 3โ€“5 min C. 5 mg IV D. 1 mg/kg IV Answer: B Rationale: Standard epinephrine dose is 1 mg IV/IO every 3โ€“5 minutes.
  2. You observe a wide-complex tachycardia with a pulse and hypotension. What is the next step? A. Administer adenosine B. Perform synchronized cardioversion C. Defibrillate immediately D. Begin CPR Answer: B Rationale: Unstable tachycardia requires immediate synchronized cardioversion.
  3. A patient has bradycardia with hypotension and altered mental status. What drug should you give first? A. Dopamine B. Epinephrine C. Atropine D. Amiodarone Answer: C Rationale: Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia.
  4. What is the ACLS algorithm used for a patient with PEA? A. Defibrillate and give amiodarone
  1. Which antiarrhythmic is indicated after the second defibrillation attempt in VF/VT? A. Lidocaine B. Amiodarone C. Magnesium D. Adenosine Answer: B Rationale: Amiodarone is used for shock-refractory VF/pulseless VT after epinephrine.
  2. What is the most reliable method for confirming and monitoring endotracheal tube placement? A. Chest rise B. Auscultation C. Capnography D. Oxygen saturation Answer: C Rationale: Continuous waveform capnography is the gold standard.
  3. What should you do if capnography shows a sudden drop in ETCOโ‚‚ during CPR? A. Suspect return of spontaneous circulation B. Suspect poor chest compression quality C. Suspect dislodged ET tube D. Continue CPR without change Answer: C Rationale: A drop in ETCOโ‚‚ often signals tube dislodgment or poor ventilation.
  4. What is the purpose of a "time-out" before a resuscitation effort begins? A. Assign team roles B. Delay CPR C. Choose medications

D. Perform diagnostics Answer: A Rationale: A team time-out ensures clear role assignment and preparation.

  1. What is the primary action of adenosine? A. Slows sinus node firing B. Terminates reentrant supraventricular tachycardia C. Treats ventricular fibrillation D. Increases heart rate Answer: B Rationale: Adenosine is effective in halting reentrant pathways causing SVT.
  2. What is the correct dose of adenosine for a stable patient with SVT? A. 12 mg rapid IV push B. 6 mg slow IV push C. 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by 12 mg if needed D. 0.5 mg IV Answer: C Rationale: 6 mg initially, then 12 mg if no conversion occurs.
  3. When managing a cardiac arrest, which is more important: compressions or ventilation? A. Equal priority B. Ventilations C. Compressions D. Airway management Answer: C Rationale: High-quality chest compressions are the most critical early intervention.
  4. What drug is recommended for torsades de pointes with a pulse? A. Epinephrine B. Atropine

C. Begin chest compressions D. Check pulse Answer: B Rationale: Activate EMS before initiating CPR in most settings.

  1. Which rhythm is most commonly seen immediately after defibrillation of VF? A. Asystole B. PEA C. Bradycardia D. Sinus rhythm Answer: B Rationale: PEA often follows defibrillation if ROSC hasn't been achieved.
  2. What is the primary goal of synchronized cardioversion? A. Improve oxygenation B. Restore perfusing rhythm C. Slow the heart rate D. Prevent VF Answer: B Rationale: Cardioversion aims to convert unstable tachycardias to normal sinus rhythm.
  3. Which team member is responsible for timing cycles and giving drug reminders during a code? A. Team leader B. Compressor C. Recorder/Timer D. Airway manager Answer: C Rationale: The recorder tracks timing, medications, and CPR cycle intervals.
  4. What is the most critical action after ROSC?

A. Stop CPR B. Rapid temperature check C. Initiate post-cardiac arrest care D. Give naloxone Answer: C Rationale: Post-ROSC care is crucial for survival and neurologic outcome.51. What is the recommended initial energy dose for synchronized cardioversion of unstable narrow-complex tachycardia? A. 50 J B. 100 J C. 120 J D. 200 J Answer: A Rationale: Begin with 50โ€“100 J for unstable narrow-complex SVT.

  1. What should you monitor continuously during a cardiac arrest? A. Respiratory rate B. Blood pressure C. End-tidal COโ‚‚ (ETCOโ‚‚) D. Pulse oximetry Answer: C Rationale: ETCOโ‚‚ monitoring assesses the effectiveness of compressions and can indicate ROSC.
  2. Which of the following is a shockable rhythm? A. Asystole B. PEA C. VF D. Sinus bradycardia Answer: C Rationale: VF (ventricular fibrillation) and pulseless VT are shockable rhythms.
  1. A patient has ROSC but is unresponsive. What is your next priority? A. Check for pain response B. Administer naloxone C. Initiate targeted temperature management (TTM) D. Give atropine Answer: C Rationale: TTM improves neurologic outcomes in comatose post-cardiac arrest patients.
  2. What is the correct compression depth for adult CPR? A. At least 1 inch B. At least 2 inches (5 cm) C. 3โ€“4 inches D. Any visible chest compression Answer: B Rationale: Compression depth should be at least 2 inches (5 cm), but not more than 2.4 inches.
  3. A patient has a regular, narrow-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm and is stable. What is your first intervention? A. Adenosine B. Vagal maneuvers C. Synchronized cardioversion D. Epinephrine Answer: B Rationale: For stable narrow-complex SVT, attempt vagal maneuvers first.
  4. Which of the following is true about defibrillation? A. Pads can be placed over pacemakers B. Delay defibrillation for rhythm analysis C. Do not defibrillate asystole

D. Defibrillate as soon as rhythm appears organized Answer: C Rationale: Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; defibrillation is not effective.

  1. Which rhythm is most likely to deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation? A. Sinus bradycardia B. Torsades de pointes C. First-degree AV block D. Atrial fibrillation Answer: B Rationale: Torsades is a polymorphic VT and can deteriorate into VF.
  2. Which antiarrhythmic can be used as an alternative to amiodarone in VF/pulseless VT? A. Lidocaine B. Adenosine C. Magnesium D. Atropine Answer: A Rationale: Lidocaine is an acceptable alternative to amiodarone for shock-refractory VF/pulseless VT.
  3. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for a single rescuer in adult CPR? A. 30: B. 15: C. 10: D. 5: Answer: A Rationale: For single-rescuer adult CPR, use 30 compressions to 2 breaths.
  4. What condition is associated with "pulseless electrical activity"? A. Torsades
  1. What is the maximum interval you should pause chest compressions to check for a pulse or rhythm? A. 5 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 15 seconds Answer: C Rationale: Limit interruptions to compressions to no more than 10 seconds.
  2. You find a patient in pulseless VT. What is your first action? A. Start IV line B. Give amiodarone C. Defibrillate D. Give epinephrine Answer: C Rationale: Immediate defibrillation is the priority for pulseless VT/VF.
  3. What condition is likely if the ECG shows a regular wide-complex tachycardia and the patient is unstable? A. Atrial flutter B. Sinus tachycardia C. Ventricular tachycardia D. SVT with aberrancy Answer: C Rationale: VT is the most likely wide-complex tachycardia and is treated with cardioversion if unstable.
  4. Which of the following is part of high-performance team dynamics? A. Role confusion B. Closed-loop communication C. Silence among team members D. Multiple leaders

Answer: B Rationale: Closed-loop communication is a hallmark of effective team performance.

  1. What is the goal of post-cardiac arrest care? A. Identify reversible causes B. Avoid another arrest C. Optimize oxygenation and perfusion D. Administer thrombolytics Answer: C Rationale: Post-arrest care focuses on stabilizing the patient and supporting organ function.
  2. Which of the following is true about CPR quality? A. Compression rate should be 80โ€“100/min B. Minimize interruptions in compressions C. Ventilate every 3 seconds D. Stop compressions for ventilations every cycle Answer: B Rationale: Limiting interruptions is vital for effective CPR.
  3. A patient has VF on the monitor and no pulse. What is your next action? A. Administer amiodarone B. Give oxygen C. Start CPR and prepare for defibrillation D. Deliver synchronized shock Answer: C Rationale: Begin CPR and defibrillate ASAP for VF arrest.76. During CPR, which is the most appropriate ventilation rate with an advanced airway in place? A. 6โ€“10 breaths per minute B. 12โ€“20 breaths per minute C. 1 breath every 3 seconds D. 30 breaths per minute