ACLS Post-Exam Review: Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support, Exams of Nursing

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ACLS Post Exam 2025

1. What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for CPR in a single rescuer adult CPR? A. 15: B. 30: C. 20: D. 5: ✅ Answer: B. 30:

2. Which of the following rhythms is considered a shockable rhythm in cardiac arrest? A. Asystole B. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) C. Ventricular fibrillation (VF) D. Sinus bradycardia ✅ Answer: C. Ventricular fibrillation (VF)
3. What is the first drug of choice for treating pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT)? A. Atropine B. Adenosine C. Epinephrine D. Amiodarone ✅ Answer: C. Epinephrine
4. How often should you switch compressors during CPR to avoid fatigue? A. Every 1 minute B. Every 3 minutes C. Every 2 minutes D. Every 5 minutes ✅ Answer: C. Every 2 minutes
5. What is the correct dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?

B. Transcutaneous pacing C. Epinephrine D. High-quality CPR ✅ Answer: D. High-quality CPR

9. What is the dose of amiodarone for refractory VF/pulseless VT? A. 150 mg rapid IV push B. 300 mg IV bolus, then 150 mg if needed C. 1 mg/kg every 5 minutes D. 100 mg over 10 minutes ✅ Answer: B. 300 mg IV bolus, then 150 mg if needed
10. What does ROSC stand for in ACLS? A. Return of spontaneous communication B. Rhythm of systolic contraction C. Return of spontaneous circulation D. Reoxygenation of systemic cells ✅ Answer: C. Return of spontaneous circulation
11. What is the recommended initial joules for biphasic defibrillation in adults? A. 50 J B. 100 J

C. 120–200 J

D. 300–360 J

✅ Answer: C. 120–200 J

12. A patient in cardiac arrest has PEA on the monitor. What is your next action? A. Immediate defibrillation B. Give atropine C. Begin CPR and give epinephrine D. Administer amiodarone ✅ Answer: C. Begin CPR and give epinephrine
13. What is the proper ventilation rate for an adult patient with a pulse and a bag- mask device? A. 6–10 breaths per minute B. 12–20 breaths per minute C. 10–12 breaths per minute D. 8–10 breaths per minute ✅ Answer: A. 6–10 breaths per minute
14. Which of the following is a H’s and T’s reversible cause of cardiac arrest? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypertension

C. End-tidal CO₂ monitoring D. Chest rise observation ✅ Answer: C. End-tidal CO₂ monitoring

18. What is the maximum interruption time allowed for chest compressions during CPR? A. Less than 5 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 15 seconds D. 20 seconds ✅ Answer: B. 10 seconds
19. In a suspected stroke patient, what is the recommended window for CT imaging of the brain? A. Within 1 hour of arrival B. Within 3 hours of symptom onset C. Within 25 minutes of arrival D. Within 10 minutes of triage ✅ Answer: C. Within 25 minutes of arrival
20. What is the recommended treatment for a narrow-complex tachycardia with a stable patient? A. Defibrillation B. Adenosine

C. Atropine D. Lidocaine ✅ Answer: B. Adenosine

21. Which of the following is a common side effect of amiodarone? A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Hypertension D. Increased respiratory rate ✅ Answer: A. Bradycardia
22. When treating a patient with a suspected opioid overdose and no pulse, what is your priority? A. Administer naloxone B. Provide high-flow oxygen C. Begin CPR and follow ACLS cardiac arrest algorithm D. Obtain IV access ✅ Answer: C. Begin CPR and follow ACLS cardiac arrest algorithm
23. A patient has ROSC. Which of the following is the next best step in management? A. Immediately give amiodarone B. Monitor for 30 minutes, then discharge

D. In asystole ✅ Answer: B. When atropine is ineffective in symptomatic bradycardia

27. During a code, a team member makes a mistake. What is the best response? A. Ignore the error B. Wait until the code is over to mention it C. Address it respectfully and immediately D. Call a supervisor to report it ✅ Answer: C. Address it respectfully and immediately
28. In post-cardiac arrest care, what is the target temperature range for therapeutic hypothermia? A. 32–36°C (89.6–96.8°F) B. 36–38°C (96.8–100.4°F) C. 28–32°C (82.4–89.6°F) D. 30–34°C (86.0–93.2°F) ✅ Answer: A. 32–36°C (89.6–96.8°F)
29. What is the preferred vascular access for drug administration during a cardiac arrest? A. Intraosseous B. Subcutaneous C. Intramuscular

D. Peripheral IV ✅ Answer: D. Peripheral IV (Note: If IV access is not available, intraosseous (IO) is the next best option.)

30. What is the best way to minimize interruptions in chest compressions during CPR? A. Deliver drugs before compressions B. Defibrillate without pausing compressions C. Pre-charge the defibrillator during compressions D. Check pulse frequently ✅ Answer: C. Pre-charge the defibrillator during compressions31. Which rhythm is characterized by irregularly irregular R-R intervals with no identifiable P waves? A. Sinus tachycardia B. Atrial flutter C. Atrial fibrillation D. Ventricular tachycardia ✅ Answer: C. Atrial fibrillation
31. Which medication should be administered rapidly as a 6 mg IV push for a stable narrow-complex tachycardia? A. Amiodarone B. Adenosine C. Atropine

C. Magnesium sulfate D. Adenosine ✅ Answer: C. Magnesium sulfate

36. In a pulseless electrical activity (PEA) scenario, what is the priority intervention? A. Defibrillation B. Treat underlying causes C. Cardioversion D. Administer adenosine ✅ Answer: B. Treat underlying causes
37. When administering epinephrine during cardiac arrest, how often should it be given? A. Every minute B. Every 2 minutes C. Every 3–5 minutes D. Every 10 minutes ✅ Answer: C. Every 3–5 minutes
38. What is the initial treatment for a conscious patient with symptomatic SVT (supraventricular tachycardia)? A. Defibrillation B. Synchronized cardioversion

C. Vagal maneuvers D. Epinephrine ✅ Answer: C. Vagal maneuvers

39. Which of the following is NOT part of high-performance team dynamics in ACLS? A. Closed-loop communication B. Assigning roles C. Multitasking by one provider D. Knowing limitations ✅ Answer: C. Multitasking by one provider
40. What is the most important action to take for a patient with ROSC who is not following commands? A. Discharge home B. Start a fluid bolus C. Initiate targeted temperature management D. Begin chest compressions ✅ Answer: C. Initiate targeted temperature management41. What is the recommended compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults? A. At least 1 inch (2.5 cm) B. At least 1.5 inches (4 cm) C. At least 2 inches (5 cm)

✅ Answer: C. Administer adenosine 6 mg IV rapid push

45. What is the preferred method for opening the airway of an unresponsive patient without suspected trauma? A. Jaw-thrust B. Chin lift only C. Head-tilt, chin-lift D. Neck extension ✅ Answer: C. Head-tilt, chin-lift
46. In post-cardiac arrest care, what oxygen saturation should be targeted to avoid hyperoxia? A. 85–90% B. 90–94% C. 94–99% D. 100% ✅ Answer: C. 94–99%
47. Which of the following is a T in the “Hs and Ts” reversible causes of cardiac arrest? A. Thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary) B. Tachycardia C. Thrombocytopenia

D. Thyrotoxicosis ✅ Answer: A. Thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary)

48. In a cardiac arrest scenario, when should rhythm checks be performed? A. Every 30 seconds B. After each cycle of CPR (about 2 minutes) C. Only after ROSC D. After every drug administration ✅ Answer: B. After each cycle of CPR (about 2 minutes)
49. Which of the following is a key concept of team-based resuscitation in ACLS? A. All providers perform compressions simultaneously B. Leadership is rotated frequently C. Clear roles and responsibilities are assigned D. One person performs all tasks ✅ Answer: C. Clear roles and responsibilities are assigned
50. What is the correct energy dose for synchronized cardioversion of unstable atrial fibrillation? A. 50 J B. 100 J C. 200 J D. 360 J

54. What is the priority intervention when a patient in the ED suddenly becomes unresponsive and apneic with no pulse? A. Intubate the patient B. Begin chest compressions C. Check blood glucose D. Place the patient on oxygen ✅ Answer: B. Begin chest compressions
55. What is the purpose of using a backboard or firm surface during CPR? A. To stabilize the spine B. To reduce back strain on rescuers C. To improve compression depth and recoil D. To prevent skin breakdown ✅ Answer: C. To improve compression depth and recoil
56. What is the recommended dose and frequency for amiodarone during cardiac arrest? A. 150 mg IV every 5 minutes B. 300 mg IV push first dose, 150 mg second dose C. 100 mg IM every 10 minutes D. 75 mg IV push once ✅ Answer: B. 300 mg IV push first dose, 150 mg second dose

57. Which of the following is most important in achieving return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC)? A. Frequent defibrillation B. Timely medication delivery C. High-quality chest compressions D. Advanced airway placement ✅ Answer: C. High-quality chest compressions
58. A patient is unresponsive, not breathing normally, and has a weak pulse. What is your next action? A. Begin chest compressions B. Deliver 1 breath every 6 seconds C. Attach defibrillator pads D. Check for responsiveness again ✅ Answer: B. Deliver 1 breath every 6 seconds
59. What is a common side effect of excessive ventilation during CPR? A. Decreased intrathoracic pressure B. Increased coronary perfusion C. Decreased cardiac output D. Increased oxygen saturation ✅ Answer: C. Decreased cardiac output