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Advanced Health Assessment & diagnostic Reasoning NURS 6512N Questions with Answers, Exams of Nursing

Dallas Nursing InstituteNursing

Advanced Health Assessment & diagnostic Reasoning NURS 6512N Questions with Answers 1. Testing the biceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer-C5 2. Testing the brachioradialis reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer-C6 3. Testing the triceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer-C7 4. Testing the knee jerk reflex helps localize lesions in which nerve root(s)? - Answer-L3/L4 5. Testing the Achilles reflex helps localize lesions in which nerve root(s)? - Answer-L5/S1

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Advanced Health Assessment & diagnostic Reasoning NURS
6512N Questions with Answers
1. Testing the biceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? -
Answer-C5
2. Testing the brachioradialis reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve
root? - Answer-C6
3. Testing the triceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? -
Answer-C7
4. Testing the knee jerk reflex helps localize lesions in which nerve root(s)? -
Answer-L3/L4
5. Testing the Achilles reflex helps localize lesions in which nerve root(s)? -
Answer-L5/S1
6. What is being tested with a monofilament for diabetic neuropathy? - Answer-
Intact sensation
7. Decreased sensation to monofilament testing in the feet of a patient with
diabetes may indicate an increased risk of which complication? - Answer-Skin
ulcers
8. Where is the dermatome that corresponds to the C6 nerve root? - Answer-In the
thumb and 1st web space
9. Where is the dermatome that corresponds approximately to the T10 nerve root? -
Answer-At the level of the umbilicus
10. Which is TRUE regarding Hoffman's maneuver? - Answer-It indicates upper
motor neuron involvement.
11. What is a positive Lhermitte's sign? - Answer-It involves flexion of the neck
causing an "electric-like" sensation that runs down the back.
12. What physical exam finding is indicative of a cervical nerve root radiculopathy? -
Answer-Positive foraminal compression test
13. What type of headache might present with a "thunderclap" intense onset of pain?
- Answer-Headache due to a subarachnoid hemorrhage
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Download Advanced Health Assessment & diagnostic Reasoning NURS 6512N Questions with Answers and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

Advanced Health Assessment & diagnostic Reasoning NURS

6512N Questions with Answers

  1. Testing the biceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer- C
  2. Testing the brachioradialis reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer- C
  3. Testing the triceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer- C
  4. Testing the knee jerk reflex helps localize lesions in which nerve root(s)? - Answer- L3/L
  5. Testing the Achilles reflex helps localize lesions in which nerve root(s)? - Answer- L5/S
  6. What is being tested with a monofilament for diabetic neuropathy? - Answer- Intact sensation
  7. Decreased sensation to monofilament testing in the feet of a patient with diabetes may indicate an increased risk of which complication? - Answer- Skin ulcers
  8. Where is the dermatome that corresponds to the C6 nerve root? - Answer- In the thumb and 1st web space
  9. Where is the dermatome that corresponds approximately to the T10 nerve root? - Answer- At the level of the umbilicus
  10. Which is TRUE regarding Hoffman's maneuver? - Answer- It indicates upper motor neuron involvement.
  11. What is a positive Lhermitte's sign? - Answer- It involves flexion of the neck causing an "electric-like" sensation that runs down the back.
  12. What physical exam finding is indicative of a cervical nerve root radiculopathy? - Answer- Positive foraminal compression test
  13. What type of headache might present with a "thunderclap" intense onset of pain? - Answer- Headache due to a subarachnoid hemorrhage
  1. What type of headache is often associated with symptoms of nausea, photophobia, and phonophobia - Answer- Migraine headache
  2. Which cranial nerve (CN) affects the sensory as well as the motor function of the face? - Answer- trigeminal nerve
  3. What cranial nerve (CN) palsy leads to the eye not being able to move laterally on exam? - Answer- CN VI: abducens nerve
  4. Which three cranial nerves control ocular movements? - Answer- III, IV, and VI
  5. How do you test for an afferent pupillary defect on a physical examination? - Answer- Using the swinging flashlight test
  6. What is a Snellen chart used for during a cranial nerve examination? - Answer- To test visual acuity
  7. Which cranial nerve (CN) do the Weber and Rinne tests evaluate? - Answer- CN VIII: cochlear nerve
  8. Which cranial nerves (CN) are tested by asking the patient to elevate their palate by saying "AH?" - Answer- CN X: vagus nerve and CN IX: glossopharyngeal nerve
  9. Which cranial nerve (CN) is tested by asking the patient to turn their head against resistance? - Answer- CN XI: accessory nerve
  10. Which cranial nerve (CN) is tested by asking the patient to move their tongue from side to side? - Answer- CN XII: hypoglossal nerve
  11. Which condition most commonly causes sacroiliitis or pain in the sacroiliac joints? - Answer- Ankylosing spondylitis
  12. Pain and tenderness over the lateral hip are most commonly seen in which condition? - Answer- Trochanteric bursitis
  13. Pain and burning in the anterior and lateral thigh are usually due to what condition? - Answer- Meralgia paresthetica
  14. Piriformis syndrome can mimic what other condition? - Answer- Sciatica
  15. Osteoarthritis of the hip produces pain most commonly with which maneuver? - Answer- Internal rotation of the hip joint
  16. What area is tender with iliopsoas bursitis? - Answer- Tenderness is elicited over the inguinal ligament.
  1. Emphysema can be described as...? - Answer- ...the destruction of a portion of the airway distal to the terminal bronchiole.
  2. Which statement regarding bulla or bleb is FALSE? - Answer- Bleb is usually subpleural.
  3. What is TRUE regarding abdominojugular reflux? - Answer- Abdominojugular reflux is due to an increased inflow of blood from the abdominal veins into the right atrium.
  4. The venous pulse found on physical exam of the neck is... - Answer- ...biphasic, easily obliterated by light pressure, and increased in the supine position.
  5. What is TRUE regarding the arterial pulses in the lower extremities? - Answer- The posterior tibial pulse is located behind the medial malleolus of the ankle.
  6. A patient with viral pericarditis... - Answer- ...is most comfortable sitting upright and forward.
  7. What are the components of Beck's triad? - Answer- Muffled heart sounds, HYPOtension, and Kussmaul's sign
  8. What are splinter hemorrhages seen with bacterial endocarditis? - Answer- Microthrombi in the nail bed
  9. Which of the following is NOT a radiographic finding of hyperinflation? - Answer- Visualization of a thin pleural line
  10. Which type of emphysema destroys the alveolar ducts and sacs? - Answer- Paraseptal
  11. Which statement regarding pleural effusion is CORRECT? - Answer- It can be a direct extension from the peritoneum.
  12. GIVE FEEDBACKWATCH RELATED VIDEO
  13. The carina is an important landmark because...? - Answer- ...it helps us to evaluate the positioning of lines and tubes.
  14. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a chest X-ray consolidation? - Answer- It is a disease of bronchi.
  15. Which clinical condition is usually NOT a cause of transudative pleural effusion? - Answer- Empyema
  16. Which of the following is NOT an indication for a chest CT scan? - Answer- Asthma
  1. A Q wave that develops in an ECG during an MI represents which of the following? - Answer- Regions of infarcted myocardial tissue
  2. Which of the following indicates the proper order of the waves in an electrocardiogram? - Answer- P wave → PR segment → QRS complex → ST segment → T wave
  3. On an ECG, what is the range, in degrees, of a normal axis? - Answer- Between -30° and 90°
  4. What cardiac physiology does the S1 heart sound represent? - Answer- Closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
  5. What cardiac physiology does the S2 heart sound represent? - Answer- Closure of the aortic valve and pulmonic valves
  6. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a chest X-ray consolidation? - Answer- It is a disease of bronchi.
  7. All of the following are downsides of CT scans, except...? - Answer- ...they have overall lower sensitivity than chest X-rays.
  8. GIVE FEEDBACKWATCH RELATED VIDEO
  9. What cardiac physiology does the S3 heart sound represent? - Answer- Increased ventricular filling pressures, such as in heart failure
  10. What cardiac physiology does the S4 heart sound represent? - Answer- Atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle, as seen in left ventricular hypertrophy
  11. What is TRUE regarding physiologic splitting of the second heart sound (S2)? - Answer- The splitting gets more pronounced with inspiration, as it takes longer for the pulmonic valve to close.
  12. All of the following are downsides of CT scans, except...? - Answer- ...they have overall lower sensitivity than chest X-rays.
  13. Which of the following is the MOST accurate description of the murmur of aortic stenosis? - Answer- It is usually heard at the right upper sternal border but also can be heard across the precordium during systole.
  14. How does valvular aortic stenosis affect the S2 heart sound? - Answer- S2 is heard less crisply, as the A2 component is affected by degenerating sclerotic tissue.
  1. What is egophony? - Answer- A change in the patient's vocalization sounds heard when auscultating the lungs, with the lower frequencies filtered out, resulting in a high-pitched nasal or bleating quality
  2. Which of the following is NOT a common indication for bronchoscopy? - Answer- Community acquired pneumonia
  3. How do structures appear on a lordotic X-ray film? - Answer- Anterior structures appear superior to posterior structures.
  4. Which statement regarding the spine sign on a lateral chest radiograph is true? - Answer- In cases of lower lobe consolidation, the X-ray beam has to penetrate the consolidation and the spine, making the spine appear whiter.
  5. Interpreting an ECG requires a systematic approach. Which of the following would not be included in such an approach? - Answer- Avoiding comparison with prior tracings
  6. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ascertain the heart rate on an ECG? - Answer- Counting the big boxes between 2 QRS complexes and dividing 300 by that number
  7. On an ECG, how many seconds does each large box represent? - Answer- 0. seconds
  8. On an ECG, how many small boxes are in each large box? - Answer- 5
  9. How does the handgrip maneuver affect a heart murmur due to mitral regurgitation? - Answer- The intensity of the murmur gets louder due to increased afterload.
  10. What causes an increased pulsus paradoxus in a patient with pericarditis and cardiac tamponade? - Answer- Blood in the right heart starts to compromise the left ventricular outflow tract due to increased volume in the pericardium.
  11. Which result indicates the most severe peripheral artery disease? - Answer- Ankle-brachial index (ABI) < 0.
  12. What is TRUE regarding the abnormal findings of pectoriloquy, egophony, and tactile fremitus? - Answer- Sound is being transmitted through solid tissue, such as a tumor, or an area of consolidation instead of the air-filled lung tissue.
  13. On an AP radiograph of the chest...? - Answer- ...the heart appears enlarged.
  1. The physical exam finding of pitting edema in the ankles and feet is... - Answer- ...seen with chronic venous insufficiency.
  2. Pulsus paradoxus refers to... - Answer- ...a drop in systolic pressure > 10 mm Hg during inspiration.
  3. What is a pericardial friction rub? - Answer- The visceral pericardium and the parietal pericardium audibly rub against each other.
  4. What physical exam finding is more indicative of NORMAL peripheral arterial circulation than peripheral artery disease? - Answer- Hair growth on feet
  5. What physical exam finding is more indicative of peripheral artery disease than normal peripheral arterial circulation? - Answer- Pallor after light pressure applied to the foot
  6. What is the primary indication for performing an ankle-brachial index test? - Answer- Claudication
  7. What are the five qualities of a heart murmur that are important to describe? - Answer- Location, intensity, shape, pitch, and timing
  8. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a chest X-ray consolidation? - Answer- Kerley B lines
  9. Which of the following statements regarding the precordial ECG lead system is FALSE? - Answer- All of the leads are placed on the same side of the sternum.
  10. The standard voltage calibration is such that 10 mm is equal to how many mV? - Answer- 1.0 mV
  11. What is TRUE of vesicular breath sounds? - Answer- They are light, feathery, and louder in inspiration than expiration.
  12. Which is the best area to auscultate the right MIDDLE lobe? - Answer- On the right side of the chest wall below the axilla
  13. With what diagnosis would you find wet, coarse crackles in the bases of the lungs on a physical exam? - Answer- heart failure
  14. What is TRUE regarding adventitious breath sounds? - Answer- Rhonchi may clear with coughing.
  15. What is resonance? - Answer- A low-pitched hollow sound heard on percussion over normal lung tissue
  1. For what disease does the Schober test of limited flexion in the spine evaluate? - Answer- Ankylosing spondylitis
  2. Palpation of the spinous processes can reveal point tenderness with which condition? - Answer- Vertebral fracture due to osteoporosis
  3. Which cervical nerve root is matched with the correct motor strength test? - Answer- C5/biceps and deltoid
  4. Which lumbar strength test is matched with the correct nerve root? - Answer- Knee extension/L
  5. What does a finding of 3/5 indicate on the motor strength scale? - Answer- Can lift against gravity
  6. What rotator cuff structure is primarily responsible for the internal rotation of the shoulder? - Answer- Subscapularis
  7. Which rotator cuff muscle lifts the shoulder up? - Answer- Supraspinatus
  8. Which muscle provides strength to lift objects over your head? - Answer- Deltoid
  9. Which disease process is seen with hand overuse in playing video games? - Answer- De Quervain's tenosynovitis
  10. Where can the examiner palpate the supraspinatus tendon during a physical exam? - Answer- At the top of the humeral head
  11. Which range of motion is tested by having the patient raise their arm forward in front of them? - Answer- Flexion
  12. What is the medical terminology for "frozen shoulder?" - Answer- Adhesive capsulitis
  13. Where does the long head of the biceps tendon originate in the shoulder - Answer- At the supraglenoid tubercle above the glenoid cavity of the scapula
  14. What does the Yergason's "resistance to supination" test assess for? - Answer- Bicipital tendinopathy
  15. What does the "cross-body adduction test" check for? - Answer- Acromioclavicular joint arthritis
  1. What are the four muscles of the rotator cuff? - Answer- Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor
  2. What muscle is tested with a "painful arc" from 120 to 60 degrees? - Answer- Supraspinatus
  3. Tendinopathy of which muscle causes pain on resisted external rotation? - Answer- Infraspinatus
  4. Which muscle located on the anterior scapula is responsible for internal rotation - Answer- Subscapularis
  5. Pain and tenderness over the lateral hip are most commonly seen in which condition - Answer- Trochanteric bursitis
  6. Pain and burning in the anterior and lateral thigh are usually due to what condition? - Answer- Meralgia paresthetica
  7. Where do upper motor neurons cross over to the contralateral side? - Answer- In the medulla
  8. What is one cause of lower motor neuron exam findings? - Answer- Carpal tunnel syndrome
  9. What is a physical exam finding seen with lower motor neuron disease - Answer- Focal atrophy
  10. What does the passive compression test (done by pushing the humeral head toward the scapula) assess for? - Answer- A tear of the glenoid labrum
  11. Which of the following would the foraminal compression test assess for? - Answer- Cervical spine facet joint arthritis
  12. Which diagnosis is a common cause of POSTERIOR hip pain - Answer- Sacroiliitis
  13. Osteoarthritis of the hip produces pain most commonly with which maneuver - Answer- Internal rotation of the hip joint
  14. What is a physical exam finding seen with lower motor neuron disease? - Answer- Focal atrophy
  15. Testing the brachioradialis reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer- C
  1. Where does the long head of the biceps tendon originate in the shoulder? - Answer- At the supraglenoid tubercle above the glenoid cavity of the scapula
  2. What is an extension of the synovial fluid originating from the carpal bones called? - Answer- Ganglion cyst
  3. Which nerve is affected with carpal tunnel syndrome? - Answer- Median nerve
  4. What condition is tested for by Eichhoff's test? - Answer- De Quervain's tenosynovitis
  5. What condition do Phalen's and Tinel's signs test for? - Answer- Carpal tunnel syndrome
  6. Patellofemoral syndrome is a common cause of which type of knee pain? - Answer- Mechanical
  7. What organism is commonly seen with septic arthritis? - Answer- Staphylococcus aureus
  8. Which test involves having the patient lie supine, and flexing their knee 90 degrees with their foot flat on the table, while the examiner sits on their toes and pulls the tibia forward to check for anterior movement that is indicative of an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear? - Answer- Anterior drawer test
  9. What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with knee pain, especially with twisting or rotating, which is accompanied by locking or catching with walking, as well as swelling, stiffness, and difficulty extending the knee? - Answer- Meniscal tear
  10. What finding is most commonly seen in older patients with osteoarthritis during a knee inspection? - Answer- Varus deviation
  11. What is the likely diagnosis in a patient with warmth, redness, and tenderness about 2 inches below the medial knee joint line? - Answer- Pes anserine bursitis
  12. What is being tested for when an examiner anchors their hand on the medial side of the knee and stresses the opposite side for laxity - Answer- Lateral collateral ligament tear
  13. For which diagnosis do the patellar ballottement test and the "bulge sign" in a knee examination test? - Answer- Knee effusion
  1. For what diagnosis do the anterior drawer test and Lachman test evaluate? - Answer- Anterior cruciate ligament tear
  2. For what diagnosis do the McMurray and Apley test evaluate? - Answer- Meniscal tear
  3. What does the patellar apprehension test evaluate for? - Answer- Patellofemoral instability
  4. What might exquisite tenderness on palpation of the anterior tibia indicate? - Answer- Tibial insufficiency fracture
  5. What is the most common structure associated with ankle sprains? - Answer- Anterior talofibular ligament
  6. What is one of the causes of medial ankle pain from overuse? - Answer- Tarsal tunnel syndrome
  7. What are the Ottawa ankle rules? - Answer- A set of guidelines to help decide if a patient with ankle pain needs an X-ray for the diagnosis of a possible bone fracture
  8. Which structure(s) is/are involved in plantar flexion of the ankle? - Answer- Achilles tendon
  9. A patient with a foot drop/weakness in dorsiflexion may have which condition? - Answer- L4 radiculopathy
  10. What does a "talar tilt test" revealing no hard stop in the inversion of the ankle indicate? - Answer- Lateral ankle ligamentous tear
  11. What does the "anterior drawer test" in the ankle evaluate for? - Answer- Anterior talofibular ligamentous integrity
  12. What is TRUE regarding tarsal tunnel syndrome? - Answer- It causes burning pain from the medial ankle to the sole of the foot.
  13. Testing the biceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer- C
  14. Testing the triceps reflex helps localize lesions in which cervical nerve root? - Answer- C
  15. What is being tested with a monofilament for diabetic neuropathy? - Answer- Intact sensation
  1. What is one of the structures evaluated on the INSPECTION part of the female genitourinary exam? - Answer- Labia majora
  2. What is one of the structures evaluated by PALPATION alone during a pelvic exam? - Answer- Uterus
  3. What condition is the examiner looking for by elevating the anterior vaginal wall and inspecting the posterior vagina while asking the patient to bear down? - Answer- Rectocele
  4. What organ is examined by using a speculum? - Answer- CERVIX
  5. What is the purpose of a Pap smear? - Answer- To screen for cervical cancer
  6. What is TRUE regarding collecting cells for a Pap smear? - Answer- After locating the cervix with the speculum, insert the brush or broom, rotate it 5 times, and then place it in the collection jar.
  7. What is a vaginal speculum used for? - Answer- To visualize the cervix
  8. When platelets bind damaged tissue, they release a substance responsible for augmenting platelet aggregation. What substance (along with thromboxane A2) is released? - Answer- Adenosine diphosphate (ADP)
  9. Which anti-platelet drug is contraindicated in heart failure? - Answer- Cilostazol (Pletal)
  10. How long does the anti-platelet function of aspirin last? - Answer- 3 - 7 days
  11. Which change is likely with the administration of dipyridamole (Persantine)? - Answer- All changes listed are likely.
  12. What is a potential complication of long-term treatment with unfractionated heparin? - Answer- Osteoporosis
  13. In the event of a life-threatening hemorrhage resulting from warfarin toxicity, which of the following interventions is most appropriate? - Answer- Administration of fresh frozen plasma
  14. What lab test is considered the gold standard for monitoring low molecular weight heparin (e.g., enoxaparin)? - Answer- Anti-factor Xa assay
  15. Which anticoagulants is noted for being able to bind clot-bound thrombin? - Answer- Hirudin
  1. Initial inhibition of which factor(s) by warfarin leads to its immediate procoagulant effect? - Answer- Factors C & S
  2. Which of the following drug classes may show a procoagulant effect? - Answer- Vasopressin agonists
  3. Vasopressin simulates von Willebrand factor secretion from endothelial cells involves V2 receptors and cAMP
  4. Which statement is most accurate regarding the comparison between alteplase and streptokinase? - Answer- Alteplase shows an affinity for fibrin- bound plasminogen, while streptokinase does not.
  5. GIVE FEEDBACK
  6. Which test must be performed prior to the administration of thrombolytics in a person with a suspected ischemic stroke? - Answer- Head CT without contrast
  7. Which of the following vitamins is water soluble? - Answer- B
  8. Which procoagulant therapy exerts its effect by inhibiting plasminogen activation? - Answer- Aminocaproic acid
  9. Which statement is most accurate regarding the comparison between alteplase and streptokinase? - Answer- Alteplase shows an affinity for fibrin- bound plasminogen, while streptokinase does not.
  10. Which of the following is a physical method of preventing venous thrombi from migrating to the lungs? - Answer- Inferior vena cava filter
  11. To what class of molecules does heparin belong to? - Answer- Mucopolysaccharides
  12. Which vitamin is antagonized by warfarin? - Answer- Vitamin K
  13. Which of the following is NOT a route of administration of heparin? - Answer- Oral
  14. Which of the following is the enzyme required for conversion of inactive coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X into active factors? - Answer- Gamma- glutamyl carboxylase
  15. Which of the following drugs is a factor IIa inhibitor? - Answer- Dabigatran
  16. Which of the following is NOT a plasminogen activator? - Answer- Dipyramidole