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Advanced Pathophysiology 2025
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS EXAM - ACTUAL EXAM
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Water movement between the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment and the extracellular fluid (ECF) compartment is primarily a function of: A. Osmotic Forces B. Plasma Oncotic Pressure C. Antidiuretic hormone D. Hydrostatic forces - CORRECT ANSWER A Two thirds of the body's water is found in its a. Interstitial fluid spaces b. Vascular system c. Intracellular fluid compartments d. Intraocular fluids - CORRECT ANSWER C A patient has a history of excessive use of magnesium-containing antacids and aluminum-containing antacids. What lab value does the healthcare professional correlate to this behavior? a. Magnesium 1.8 mg/dL b. Phosphate 1.9 mg/dL c. Sodium 149 mEq/L d. Potassium 2.5 mEq/L - CORRECT ANSWER B A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient should the professional assess for hyperkalemia? a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Vomiting c. Renal failure d. Hyperaldosteronism - CORRECT ANSWER C A healthcare professional is caring for four patients. Which patient should the professional assess for hypermagnesemia as a priority? a. Hepatitis b. Renal failure c. Trauma to the hypothalamus d. Pancreatitis - CORRECT ANSWER B
Cystic fibrosis is caused by what type of gene? a. X-linked dominant b. X-linked recessive c. Autosomal dominant d. Autosomal recessive - CORRECT ANSWER D People diagnosed with neurofibromatosis have varying degrees of the condition because of which genetic principle? a. Penetrance b. Expressivity c. Dominance d. Recessiveness - CORRECT ANSWER B What is the most common cause of Down syndrome? a. Paternal nondisjunction b. Maternal translocations c. Maternal nondisjunction d. Paternal translocation - CORRECT ANSWER C What does activation of the classical pathway begin with? a. Viruses b. Antigen-antibody complexes c. Mast cells d. Macrophages - CORRECT ANSWER B. Activation of the classical pathway begins only with the activation of protein C1 and is preceded by the formation of a complex between an antigen and an antibody to form an antigen-antibody complex (immune complex). Infection with a virus can lead to the start of the inflammatory process, but is not the specific activation factor. Mast cells release the contents of their granules to initiate synthesis of other mediators of inflammation among other actions. Macrophages are one cell type involved in phagocytosis. In the coagulation (clotting) cascade, the intrinsic and the extrinsic pathways converge at which factor? a. XII b. VII c. X d. V - CORRECT ANSWER C. The coagulation cascade consists of the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways that converge only at factor X. What effect does the process of histamine binding to the histamine-2 (H2) receptor have on inflammation? a. Inhibition b. Activation c. Acceleration d. Termination - CORRECT ANSWER A. Binding histamine to the H2 receptor is generally antiinflammatory because it results in the suppression of leukocyte function.
c. Phagocytes recognize and adhere to bacteria. d. An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Small pseudopods that extend from the plasma membrane and surround the adherent microorganism, forming an intracellular phagocytic vacuole or phagosome, carry out engulfment (endocytosis). The membrane that surrounds the phagosome consists of inverted plasma membrane. After the formation of the phagosome, lysosomes converge, fuse with the phagosome, and discharge their contents, creating a phagolysosome. When cellular damage occurs and regeneration is minor with no significant complications, what is the process of returning the cells to preinjury function referred to as? a. Restoration b. Resolution c. Regrowth d. Replacement - CORRECT ANSWER B If damage is minor with no complications and destroyed tissues are capable of regeneration, then returning the injured tissues to an approximation of their original structure and physiologic function is possible. This restoration is called resolution. Resolution is the restoration of the original tissue structure and function. Regrowth and replacement are not part of resolution. How does the B-cell receptor (BCR) complex function? a. Communicating information about the antigen to the helper T cell b. Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells c. Releasing histamine and other vasoactive substances d. Communicating information about the antigen to the cell nucleus - CORRECT ANSWER D. The role of the BCR is to recognize the antigen; however, unlike circulating antibodies, the receptor must communicate that information to the cell's nucleus. The BCR does not communicate information about the antigen to the helper T cell or secrete chemical signals to communicate between cells. The release of histamine and other vasoactive substances is part of inflammation, not adaptive immunity. When antibodies are formed against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system, how are the blood cells destroyed? a. Complement-mediated cell lysis b. Phagocytosis by macrophages c. Phagocytosis in the spleen d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products - CORRECT ANSWER C Antibodies against platelet-specific antigens or against red blood cell antigens of the Rh system coat those cells at low density, resulting in their preferential removal by phagocytosis in the spleen, rather than by complement-mediated lysis. These blood
cells are not destroyed by complement-mediated cell lysis, phagocytosis by macrophages, neutrophil granules, or toxic oxygen products When soluble antigens from infectious agents enter circulation, what is tissue damage a result of? a. Complement-mediated cell lysis b. Phagocytosis by macrophages c. Phagocytosis in the spleen d. Neutrophil granules and toxic oxygen products - CORRECT ANSWER D. Of the options available, only the components of neutrophil granules as well as the several toxic oxygen products produced by these cells, damage the tissue. Graves disease (hyperthyroidism) is an example of which type II hypersensitivity reaction? a. Modulation b. Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity c. Neutrophil-mediated damage d. Complement-mediated lysis - CORRECT ANSWER A. The antibody reacts with the receptors on the target cell surface and modulates the function of the receptor by preventing interactions with their normal ligands, replacing the ligand and inappropriately stimulating the receptor or destroying the receptor. For example, in the hyperthyroidism (excessive thyroid activity) of Graves disease, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid). Graves disease is not a result of cell-mediated cytotoxicity, neutrophil-mediated damage, or complementmediated lysis. A student asks the healthcare professional to describe exotoxins. Which statement by the professional is best? a. Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. b. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria. c. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. d. Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. - CORRECT ANSWER D. Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth. Exotoxins are not contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria, released during lysis of bacterial, or able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades. A healthcare professional student is learning about fungal infections. What information should the student use to help another student understand? a. Fungal infections occur only on skin, hair, and nails. b. Phagocytes and T lymphocytes control fungal infections. c. Fungal infections release endotoxins.
inhibiting the use of metabolic substances while promoting their formation, cortisol mobilizes glucose, amino acids, lipids, and fatty acids and delivers them to the bloodstream. ACTH binds with specific receptors on the adrenal glands which causes the release of the glucocorticoids. A student asks the healthcare professional how immunity is decreased by stress. The professional responds that during a stress response, the helper T (Th) 1 response is suppressed by which hormone? a. ACTH b. Cortisol c. Prolactin d. Growth hormone - CORRECT ANSWER B. Cortisol acts to suppress the activity of Th1 cells, which leads to a decrease in innate immunity and the proinflammatory response. Cortisol also stimulates the activity of Th2 cells, which increases adaptive immunity and the antiinflammatory response. ACTH binds with specific receptors on the adrenal glands which causes the release of the glucocorticoids. Prolactin is secreted in response to a variety of stressful stimuli and acts as a second messenger for IL-2 and has a positive influence on B-cell activation and differentiation. Growth hormone affects protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism; counters effects of insulin; and is involved in tissue repair. Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of what? a. Epinephrine and aldosterone b. Norepinephrine and cortisol c. Epinephrine and norepinephrine d. Acetylcholine and cortisol - CORRECT ANSWER C. The sympathetic nervous system is aroused during the stress response and causes the medulla of the adrenal gland to release catecholamines (80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine) into the bloodstream. Sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla does not cause the secretion of aldosterone, cortisol, or acetylcholine. A severely stressed patient has cold, clammy skin. The healthcare professional quizzes the student about this effect. The student correctly answers that this effect is directly from which action? a. Epinephrine dilating blood vessels leading to the vital organs b. Norepinephrine constricting blood vessels in the skin c. Dilating the airways to increased oxygenation of the tissues d. Dysfunctional temperature regulation from cortisol secretion - CORRECT ANSWER B. In a stress response, the actions of norepinephrine and epinephrine are complementary. While epinephrine dilates blood vessels to the vital organs (among other things), norepinephrine constricts blood vessels in the viscera and skin, providing more blood supply for those vital organs. The clinical result is cold, clammy skin.
Epinephrine can also dilate airways, but this does not produce the skin changes as described. Temperature dysregulation is not the cause of the cold, clammy skin. Released stress-induced cortisol results in the stimulation of gluconeogenesis by affecting which structure? a. Adrenal cortex b. Pancreas c. Liver d. Anterior pituitary - CORRECT ANSWER C. One of the primary effects of cortisol is the stimulation of gluconeogenesis through stimulation of the liver. The adrenal cortex, pancreas, and anterior pituitary do not produce stimulation of gluconeogenesis when exposed to cortisol. What effect do androgens have on lymphocytes? a. Suppression of B-cell responses and enhancement of T-cell responses b. Suppression of T-cell responses and enhancement of B-cell responses c. Suppression of B- and T-cell responses d. Enhancement of B- and T-cell responses - CORRECT ANSWER C. Androgens suppress T- and B-cell responses. Androgens do not enhance either B- or T-cell responses Which statement is true concerning the differences between stress-induced hormonal alterations of men and women? a. After injury, women produce more proinflammatory cytokines than men, a profile that is associated with poor outcomes. b. Androgens appear to induce a greater degree of immune cell apoptosis after injury, creating greater immunosuppression in injured men than in injured women. c. Psychologic stress associated with some types of competition decreases both testosterone and cortisol, especially in athletes older than 45 years of age. d. After stressful stimuli, estrogen is increased in women, but testosterone is decreased in men. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Androgens appear to induce a greater degree of immune cell apoptosis after injury, a mechanism that may elicit a greater immunosuppression in injured men vs. injured women. Men produce more proinflammatory cytokines. Competitive stress increases testosterone and cortisol. Estrogen is not increased in women after stressful stimuli. A reduction in an individual's number of natural killer (NK) cells appears to correlate with an increased risk for the development of what? a. Depression b. Type 1 diabetes c. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD) d. Gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD) - CORRECT ANSWER A. A metaanalysis of studies shows a relationship between depression and the reduction in lymphocyte proliferation and natural killer cell activity. Currently, no research
What is apoptosis? a. Normal mechanism for cells to self-destruct when growth is excessive b. Antigrowth signal activated by the tumor-suppressor gene Rb c. Mutation of cell growth stimulated by the TP53 gene d. Transformation of cells from dysplasia to anaplasia - CORRECT ANSWER A. Normal cells have a mechanism that causes them to self-destruct when growth is excessive and cell cycle checkpoints have been ignored. Unchecked proliferation could lead to malignancy. What are tumor cell markers? a. Hormones, enzymes, antigens, and antibodies that are produced by cancer cells b. Receptor sites on tumor cells that can be identified and marked c. Cytokines that are produced against cancer cells d. Identification marks that are used in administering radiation therapy - CORRECT ANSWER A. Tumor (biologic) markers are substances produced by both benign and malignant cells that are found either in or on the tumor cells or in the blood, spinal fluid, or urine. Tumor markers may include hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, and antibodies. Tumor markers are not receptor sites, cytokines, or identification marks for radiation. What is one function of the tumor cell marker? a. To provide a definitive diagnosis of cancer b. To treat certain types of cancer c. To predict where cancers will develop d. To screen individuals at high risk for cancer - CORRECT ANSWER D Screening and identifying individuals at high risk for cancer are ways tumor markers can be used. The two other uses for these markers are to help diagnosis a specific type of cancer (not give a definitive diagnosis) and to follow the clinical course of a tumor. Which statement supports the hypothesis that intestinal polyps are benign neoplasms and the first stage in the development of colon cancer? a. Cancer cells accumulate slower than non-cancer cells. b. An accumulation of mutations in specific genes is required to develop cancer. c. Tumor invasion and metastasis progress more slowly in the gastrointestinal tract. d. Apoptosis is triggered by diverse stimuli, including excessive growth. - CORRECT ANSWER B. Multiple genetic mutations are required for the evolution of full-blown cancer. This sequential development of cancer has been well documented in the transformation of benign colon polyps to colon cancer. Autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to do what? a. Stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply b. Encourage secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors c. Secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth
d. Divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use - CORRECT ANSWER C. Cancer cells must have mutations that enable them to proliferate in the absence of external growth signals. To achieve this, some cancers acquire the ability to secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth, a process known as autocrine stimulation. The other options describe other activities of cancer cells, but not autocrine stimulation. A student studying biology asks the professor to describe how the ras gene is involved in cancer proliferation. What explanation by the professor is best? a. It suppresses the action of the tumor-suppressor genes. b. It changes the way the growth promotion genes work. c. A mutation in this gene allows continuous cell growth. d. It activates a cell surface receptor that allows signaling to the nucleus. - CORRECT ANSWER C. Up to one-third of all cancers have an activating mutation in the gene for an intracellular signaling protein called ras. This mutant ras stimulates cell growth even when growth factors are missing. The remaining options do not describe how ras contributes to cancer formation and growth. How does the ras gene convert from a proto-oncogene to an oncogene? a. Designating a chromosome that has a piece of one chromosome fused to a piece of another chromosome b. Duplicating a small piece of a chromosome, repeatedly making numerous copies c. Altering one or more nucleotide base pairs d. Promoting proliferation of growth signals by impairing tumor-suppressor genes - CORRECT ANSWER C A point mutation is the alteration of one or a few nucleotide base pairs. This type of mutation can have profound effects on the activity of proteins. A point mutation in the ras gene converts it from a regulated proto-oncogene to an unregulated oncogene, an accelerator of cellular proliferation. Fusion, duplications, and proliferation of growth signals are not the cause of a ras gene converting to an oncogene. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably what kind of gene? a. Proto-oncogenes b. Oncogenes c. Tumor-suppressor genes d. Growth-promoting genes - CORRECT ANSWER C. Inherited mutations that predispose to cancer are almost invariably in tumor-suppressor genes. At present, no research supports the other options as factors related to how inherited mutations cause cancer. In a normal, nonmutant state, what is an oncogene referred to as? a. Basal cell
copies are present. The N-myc oncogene is amplified in 25% of childhood neuroblastoma. Why are two "hits" required to inactivate tumor-suppressor genes? a. Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent. b. The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth. c. Tumor-suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to affect carcinogenesis. d. The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation. - CORRECT ANSWER A. A single genetic event can activate an oncogene, acting in a dominant manner in the cell. However, each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent. Therefore two hits are required to inactivate the two alleles of a tumor-suppressor gene, allowing the process to become active. The remaining options do not describe the reason two hits are required. How do cancer cells use the enzyme telomerase? a. To repair the telomeres to restore somatic cell growth b. As an intracellular signaling chemical to stimulate cell division c. To switch off the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely d. To switch on the telomerase to enable cells to divide indefinitely - CORRECT ANSWER D Cancer cells, when they reach a critical age, somehow activate telomerase to restore and maintain their telomeres and thereby make it possible for cells to divide over and over again. What are characteristics of benign tumors? a. Benign tumors invade local tissues. b. Benign tumors spread through the lymph nodes. c. Benign tumors cause systemic symptoms. d. Benign tumors include the suffix - oma. - CORRECT ANSWER D Benign tumors are usually encapsulated and well-differentiated. They retain some normal tissue structure and do not invade the capsules surrounding them or spread to regional lymph nodes or distant locations. Benign tumors are generally named according to the tissues from which they arise and include the suffix - oma. Benign tumors do not cause systemic symptoms What does the health professions student learn about benign tumors? a. The resulting pain is severe. b. Benign tumors are not encapsulated. c. Benign tumors are fast growing.
d. The cells are well-differentiated. - CORRECT ANSWER D. A benign tumor is well- differentiated with its tissue appearing similar to the tissue from which it arose. The other options are characteristic of a malignant tumor. What is the major virus involved in the development of cervical cancer? a. Herpes simplex virus type 6 b. Herpes simplex virus type 2 c. Human papillomavirus d. Human immunodeficiency virus - CORRECT ANSWER C. Infection with specific subtypes of human papillomavirus (HPV) causes virtually all cervical cancers. The remaining options are not known to be associated with cervical cancer. A healthcare professional is caring for four patients with cancer. Which patient does the professional educate about brachytherapy? a. Lung b. Colon c. Cervical d. Brain - CORRECT ANSWER C. Radiation sources, such as small 125I-labeled capsules (also called seeds), can also be temporarily placed into body cavities, a delivery method termed brachytherapy. Brachytherapy is useful in the treatment of cervical, prostate, and head and neck cancers. Brachytherapy is not used in the treatment of the other cancers. The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is used to screen for which cancer? a. Ovarian b. Uterine c. Cervical d. Vaginal - CORRECT ANSWER C. The Pap test, an examination of cervical epithelial scrapings, readily detects early oncogenic human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. The Pap test is not used for screening the other cancer sites listed. What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation? a. Cells undergo apoptosis. b. Cells escape apoptosis. c. Cells receive less oxygen. d. Cells adhere more readily. - CORRECT ANSWER B. The most common mutations conferring resistance to apoptosis occur in the TP53 gene. The remaining options do not accurately describe the effect when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation. What is the role of caretaker genes? a. Maintenance of genomic integrity b. Proliferation of cancer cells c. Secretion of growth factors d. Restoration of normal tissue structure -
cervical, prostate, and head and neck cancers. Brachytherapy is not used in the treatment of the other cancers. In teaching a women's community group, which risk factor does the healthcare professional teach is related to high morbidity of cancer of the colon, uterus, and kidney? a. Women older than 45 years of age b. Women who have never had children c. Women who have a high body mass index d. Woman who have smoked for more than 10 years - CORRECT ANSWER C. A recent hypothesis states that the observed increased incidence of such cancers as breast, endometrium, colon, liver, kidney, and adenomas of the esophagus may be associated with obesity. No current research supports the remaining options. Which substance has been shown to increase the risk of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking? a. Alcohol b. Steroids c. Antihistamines d. Antidepressants - CORRECT ANSWER A. Alcohol interacts with smoke, increasing the risk of malignant tumors, possibly by acting as a solvent for the carcinogenic chemicals in smoke products. No current research supports steroids, antihistamines, or antidepressants as having an increased effect on the incidence of cancer when used in combination with tobacco smoking Research has shown a link between cancer and which sexually transmitted disease? a. Syphilis b. Gonorrhea c. Human papillomavirus d. Pelvic inflammatory disease - CORRECT ANSWER C. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is the most common sexually transmitted virus in the United States. High-risk, or oncogenic, HPVs can cause cancer. A persistence of infection with high-risk HPV is a prerequisite for the development of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) lesions and invasive cervical cancers. No research supports such a link between syphilis, gonorrhea, or pelvic Research has supported that alcohol consumption has a convincing impact on increasing the risk of which cancer? a. Lung b. Breast c. Pharynx d. Pancreas - CORRECT ANSWER C. Research had shown that alcohol consumption has a convincing positive impact on the risk of developing pharynx cancer. No research supports such a connection with the remaining options.
A healthcare professional advises patients to exercise because it has a probable impact on reducing which cancer? a. Liver b. Endometrial c. Stomach d. Colon - CORRECT ANSWER D. The expert panel report on exercise of the World Cancer Research Fund/American Institute for Cancer Research found a convincing impact of exercise on risk of colon cancer. Pricking one's finger with a needle would cause minimal pain, whereas experiencing abdominal surgery would produce more pain. This distinction is an example of which pain theory? a. Gate control theory c. Specificity theory b. Intensity theory d. Pattern theory - CORRECT ANSWER C. According to the specificity theory, a direct relationship exists between the intensity of pain and the extent of tissue injury. The remaining options are not related to the intensity of perceived pain. Which statement is true regarding the gate control theory (GCT) of pain? a. The pain gate is located in the brain. b. A closed gate increases pain perception. c. The brain primarily controls the pain gate. d. An open gate facilitates the brain in processing the pain. - CORRECT ANSWER D. The open gate in the spinal cord regulates the transmission of pain impulses that ascend to the brain for further processing and interpretation, thus leading to the management of pain. The remaining statements are not true when discussing the GCT of pain. The basis of the specificity theory of pain is that: a. Injury to specific organs results in specific types of pain. b. Chronic pain is generally less intense than acute pain. c. The greater the tissue injury, the greater the pain. d. Acute pain is specific only to certain injuries. - CORRECT ANSWER C. According to the specificity theory, a direct relationship exists between the intensity of pain and the extent of tissue injury. The remaining options are not accurate statements regarding this pain theory. Based on an understanding of the physiologic process of nociceptors, the nurse expects which surgical procedure to create more pain? a. Repair of several crushed fingers b. External fixation of a dislocated shoulder c. Cyst removal on the internal surface of an ovary
The other options are not related to the duration or intensity of pain endured before the pain is recognized. The gate in the GCT of pain is located in the: a. Substantia gelatinosa b. Marginal layer c. Nucleus proprius d. Dorsolateral tract of Lissauer - CORRECT ANSWER A. The synaptic connections between the cells of the primary- and secondary-order neurons located in the substantia gelatinosa and other Rexed laminae function as a pain gate. The remaining options do not act in this function. Which type of nerve fibers transmits pain impulses? a. A-alpha (Aa) fibers b. A-beta (Ab) fibers c. A-delta (Ad) fibers d. B fibers - CORRECT ANSWER C. Of the available options, only medium-sized Ad fibers transmit pain impulses. Which spinal tract carries the most nociceptive information? a. Archeospinothalamic b. Paleospinothalamic c. Dorsal spinothalamic d. Lateral spinothalamic - CORRECT ANSWER D. Most nociceptive information travels by means of ascending columns in the lateral spinothalamic tract (also called the anterolateral funiculus). The other tract options do not carry the most nociceptive information. Where in the CNS does a person's learned pain response occur? a. Cerebral cortex b. Frontal lobe c. Thalamus d. Limbic system - CORRECT ANSWER A. The cognitive-evaluative system overlies the individual's learned behavior concerning the experience of pain and can modulate the perception of pain and is mediated only through the cerebral cortex. What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain? a. Limbic system b. Parietal lobe c. Thalamus d. Hypothalamus - CORRECT ANSWER A. The limbic and reticular tracts are involved in alerting the body to danger, initiating arousal of the organism, and
emotionally processing the perceived afferent signals, not just as stimuli, but also as pain. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective. Pain that warns of actual or impending tissue injury is referred to as what? a. Chronic b. Psychogenic c. Acute d. Phantom - CORRECT ANSWER C. Acute pain is a protective mechanism that alerts the individual to a condition or experience that is immediately harmful to the body. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective. Which endogenous opioid is located in the hypothalamus and pituitary and is a strong m-receptor agonist? a. Enkephalins b. Endorphins c. Dynorphins d. Endomorphins - CORRECT ANSWER B. The synthesis and activity of bendorphin is concentrated in the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland and act as strong μ- receptor agonist. The remaining options do not fulfill this objective. Enkephalins and endorphins act to relieve pain by which process? a. Inhibiting cells in the substantia gelatinosa b. Stimulating the descending efferent nerve fibers c. Attaching to opiate receptor sites d. Blocking transduction of nociceptors - CORRECT ANSWER C. Enkephalins and endorphins are neurohormones that act as neurotransmitters by binding to one or more G protein-coupled opioid receptors and thus relieving pain. The other options are not accurate descriptions of how enkephalins and endorphins relieve pain. Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss? a. Evaporation b. Radiation c..Convection d. Conduction - CORRECT ANSWER C. Only convection causes the transfer of heat through currents of gases or liquids. What is a long-term complication of rewarming as a treatment for hypothermia? a. Acidosis b. Dysrhythmias c. Shock d. Renal failure - CORRECT ANSWER D. Rewarming can result in long-term complications that include congestive heart failure, hepatic and renal failure,
