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Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Questions and Answers, Exams of Business Economics

St Bernard's School of Theology and MinistryBusiness Economics

A comprehensive set of multiple-choice questions and answers covering various topics in advanced pharmacology. It is designed to help students prepare for their midterm exams and gain a deeper understanding of key concepts in the field. The questions cover a wide range of topics, including drug prescribing, medication agreements, adverse drug reactions, and treatment of various conditions. Particularly useful for students studying advanced pharmacology, nursing, and related healthcare fields.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 03/21/2025

Nursebrahim01
Nursebrahim01 🇺🇸

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Advanced Pharmacology – Midterm Complete
Questions Latest 2025/2026 With Correct
Answers GRADED A+
1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by:
a. The National Council of Sate Board of Nursing
b. The State Board of Nursing for each state
c. The U. S. Drug Enforcement Administration
d. The State Board of Pharmacy: b. The State Board of Nursing for each state
2. Eight Information needed for the prescription: 1. Date of prescribing;
2. Name of patient(s);
3. Prescriber's name;
4. Name, strength, and dosage of drug or device;
5. Number of refills, if applicable;
6. Quantity prescribed in weight, volume, or number of units;
7. An indication of whether generic substitution has been authorized by the pre-
scriber;
8. Any change or alteration made to the prescription dispensed on contact with the
prescriber must show a clear audit trail.
3. Three additional required information for controlled substances: 1. Address of the
prescriber and patient;
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Download Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Questions and Answers and more Exams Business Economics in PDF only on Docsity!

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Advanced Pharmacology – Midterm Complete

Questions Latest 2025/2026 With Correct

Answers GRADED A+

  1. Nurse practitioner prescriptive authority is regulated by: a. The National Council of Sate Board of Nursing b. The State Board of Nursing for each state c. The U. S. Drug Enforcement Administration d. The State Board of Pharmacy: b. The State Board of Nursing for each state
  2. Eight Information needed for the prescription: 1. Date of prescribing;
  3. Name of patient(s);
  4. Prescriber's name;
  5. Name, strength, and dosage of drug or device;
  6. Number of refills, if applicable;
  7. Quantity prescribed in weight, volume, or number of units;
  8. An indication of whether generic substitution has been authorized by the pre- scriber;
  9. Any change or alteration made to the prescription dispensed on contact with the prescriber must show a clear audit trail.
  10. Three additional required information for controlled substances: 1. Address of the prescriber and patient;

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  1. The prescriber's DEA number; 3 Controlled prescriptions shall also comply with all requirements of federal and state controlled substance laws.
  2. Who oversees the APRN's prescribing of controlled substances? a. The pharmaceutical board of the state b. The federal government (DEA) c. The practice protocols of the hospital d. Practice agreements: b. The federal government (DEA)
  3. The USFDA regulates: a. Prescribing of drugs by medical doctors and nurse practitioners b. The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs c. Off-label recommendations for prescribing d. Pharmaceutical educational offering: b. The official labeling for all prescription and over-the-counter drugs
  4. Medication agreements or "Pain Medication Contracts" are recommended to be used: a. Universally for all prescribing for chronic pain b. For patients who have repeated requests for pain medication c. When you suspect a patient is exhibiting drug-seeking behavior

4 / 13 a. Oral contraceptive pills b. Caffeine c. NSAIDs d. Aspirin: c. NSAIDs

  1. A medication review of an elderly person's medications involves: a. Asking the patient to bring a list of current prescription medications to the visit. b. Having the patient bring all their prescription, over-the-counter, and herbal medications to the visit. c. Asking what other providers are writing prescriptions for them. d. All of the above.: d. All of the above.

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  1. What is this skin condition of child? a. Impetigo b. Hand, Foot, and Mouth Disease c. Allergic/hypersensitive reaction d. Tinea corporis: a. Impetigo
  2. ACE-Is are the drug of choice in treating HTN in diabetic patient because they: a. improve insulin sensitivity b. improve renal hemodynamics c. reduce the production of angiotensin II d. all of above: d. all of above
  3. The NP orders a thyroid panel for a patient on amiodarone.The patient tells the NP that he does not have thyroid disease and wants to know why the test has been ordered. Which is the correct response? a. Amiodarone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and can cause hypothyroidism. b. Amiodarone damages the thyroid gland and can result in inflammation of that gland, causing hyperthyroidism c. Amiodarone is a broad spectrum drug with many adverse effects, Many different tests need to be done before it is given. d. Amiodarone can cause corneal deposits in up to 25% of patients.: a. Amio- darone inhibits an enzyme that is important in making thyroid hormone and can cause hypothyroidism.

7 / 13 c. hyperthyroidism d. atherosclerosis: a. arrhythmia

  1. What assessment that can be done at home is the most reliable to use for making decisions to change HF medications? a. Weight b. BP c. HR d. Serum glucose: a. Weight
  2. What can chest x-rays contribute to the diagnosis and management of HF? a. They have no role. b. They can give very precise pictures of pulmonary fluid status. c. They provide an idea of general cardiac size and pulmonary great vessel distribution. d. They can confirm the diagnosis.: c. They provide an idea of general cardiac size and pulmonary great vessel distribution.
  3. Jamie is a 34 - year-old pregnant woman with familial hyperlipidemia and elevated LDL levels. What is the appropriate treatment for a pregnant woman? a. A statin b. Niacin c. Fibric acid derivative d. Bile acid-binding resins: d. Bile acid-binding resins
  4. Jose is a 12 - year-old overweight child with a total cholesterol of 180 mg/dL and

8 / 13 LDL of 125 mg/dL. Along with diet education and recommending increased physical activity, a treatment plan for Jose would include with a reevaluation in 6 months. a. Statins b. Niacin c. Sterols d. Bile acid-binding resins: Sterols

  1. Which antihypertensive is safe to use in pregnancy? a. ACE-Is b. BBs

10 / 13 b. If the area is red, along with the surrounding tissues c. Patient is febrile d. all of above: d. all of above

  1. When writing a prescription of permethrin 5% cream (Elimite) for scabies, patient education would include: a. all members of the household and personal contacts should be treated. b. infants should have permethrin applied from the neck down. c. the permethrin is washed off after 10 to 20 minutes. d. permethrin is flammable and to avoid open flame while the medication is applied.: a. all members of the household and personal contacts should be treated.
  2. Bisphosphonate administration education includes: a. taking it on a full stomach

11 / 13 b. sitting erect for at least 30 minutes afterward c. drinking it with orange juice d. taking it with H2 blockers or PPIs to protect stomach: b. sitting erect for at least 30 minutes afterward

  1. Besides osteoporosis, IV bisphosphonates are also indicated for: a. Paget's Disease b. Early osteopenia c. Renal cancer d. Early closure of cranial sutures: a. Paget's Disease
  2. Selective estrogen receptor modifiers (SERMs) treat osteoporosis by se- lectively: a. inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys b. increasing calcium absorption from the GI tract c. acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity d. acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone: d. acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone
  3. Whether prescribing an antibiotic for a child with acute otitis media or not, the parents should be educated about: a. using decongestants to provide faster symptom relief b. providing adequate pain relief for at least the first 24 hours c. using complementary treatments for acute otitis media, such as garlic oil d. administering an antihistamine/decongestant combination (Dimetapp) so the

13 / 13 d. cephalexin 500 mg qid for 5 days: b. amoxicillin-clavulanate 500 mg bid for 5 days

  1. A stepwise approach to the pharmacologic management of asthma: a. allows for each provider to determine their personal approach to the care of asthmatic patients b. is used when asthma is severe and required daily steroids c. begins with determining the severity of asthma and assessing asthma control d. provides a framework for the management of severe asthmatics, but is not helpful when patients have intermittent asthma: c. begins with determining the severity of asthma and assessing asthma control
  2. Asthma exacerbations at home are managed by the patient by: a. starting montelukast (Singulair) b. increasing frequency of beta 2 agonists and contacting their provider c. inhaling beta 2 agonists every 20 minutes for two hours d. tripling inhaled corticosteroid dose: b. increasing frequency of beta 2 agonists and contacting their provider
  3. One goal of asthma management in children is: a. minimal use of inhaled corticosteroids b. participation in school and sports activities c. they independently manage their asthma d. no exacerbations: b. participation in school and sport activities
  4. Pregnant patients with asthma may safely use throughout their

14 / 13 pregnancy. a. oral terbutaline b. prednisone c. inhaled corticosteroids (budesonide) d. montelukast (Singular): c. inhaled corticosteroids (budesonide)

  1. Cough and cold medications that contain a sympathomimetic deconges- tant such as phenylephrine should be used cautiously in what population: a. Older adults b. Hypertensive patients c. Infants d. All of the above: d. All of the above

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  1. Nicotine withdrawal symptoms include: a. decreased appetite b. irritability c. diarrhea d. somnolence: b. Irritability Nicotine withdrawal
  2. Pharmocokinetics: what the body does to the drug
  3. Pharmodynamics: what the drug does to the body
  4. acute effects of alcohol on the brain: depression of CNS function and activa- tion of the reward circuit
  5. benefits of alcohol when consumed in moderation: prolongs life and reduces the risk for dementia and cardiovascular disorders.

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  1. Benzodiazepines to facilitate alcohol withdrawal.: chlordiazepoxide, clo- razepate, diazepam, lorazepam, oxazepam
  2. how do benzodiazepines help with alcohol withdrawal?: stabilize vital signs, reduce symptoms intensity, and decrease risk for seizures and delirium.
  3. three drugs approved for maintaining abstinence in the untied states: nal- trexone, acamprosate, and disulfiram
  4. Naltrexone (Vivitrol): Pure opioid antagonist that suppresses the craving and pleasurable effects of alcohol (also called opioid withdrawal) Instruct clients to take with meals to decrease GI distress
  5. Acamprosate: Decreases unpleasant effects resulting from abstinence like dys- phoria, anxiety, restlessness
  6. Dislfiram (antabuse): helps individuals with AUD avoid drinking by causing unpleasant effects if alcohol is ingested
  7. adverse effects of Disulfiram (antabuse): acetaldehyde syndrome: caused by use of alcohol with medication. symptoms: nausea, vomiting, palpitations, headache, chest pain, hypotension, in severe form can be life threatening. alcoholics who lack the determination to stop drinking shouldn't receive this treatment.
  8. Ferosemide (Lasix): Class: Loop Diuretic Indications: CHF, pulmonary edema Remarks: Caution in pregnancy, Adverse effects: hypokalemia
  9. Hydrocholorothiazide (Microzide): Class: Thiazide diuretic Indications: hypertension; edema due to heart failure/hepatic disease/renal disease

19 / 13 *Orthostatic Hypotension

  1. Therapeutic use of ACE: heart failure, acute MI, left ventricular dysfunction, and diabetic and nondiabetic nephropathy. reduce risk for cardiovascular mortality caused by hypertension
  2. Adverse effects of ACE inhibitors: - Cough
  • Hypotension in hypovolemic patients
  • Acute renal failure
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Angioedema
  • Contraindicated in pregnancy
  1. Angiotension II Receptor Blockers (ARBs): - sartan. therapeutic use: hy- pertension, heart failure (only valsartan and candesartan), diabetic nephropathy (irbesartan & losartan), reducing cardiovascular mortality in post-MI patients (val- sartan), reducing the risk for stoke in patients with HTN (losartan), preventing MI/stroke/death in patient with high cardiovascular risk (telmisartan)
  2. adverse effects of ARBS: angioedema and renal failure
  3. Aliskiren (Tekturna): Mechanism of Action: Renin inhibitor Clinical Uses: HTN secondary to renal failure or diabetes. Adverse effects: dose dependent diarrhea

20 / 13 Notes: do not use in pregnant women

  1. Eplerenone (Inspra): Class: selective aldosterone receptor blocker Use: hypertension and heart failure Adverse effect: hyperkalemia
  2. Verapamil (Calan, Verlan): Class: calcium channel blocker Indication: angina pectoris, essential HTN, cardiac dysrhythmias (atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, paroxysomal supraventricular tachycardia) Adverse effects: constipation, dizziness, headache, edma of ankles and feet
  3. Diltiazem (Cardizem): Class: calcium channel blocker Use: angina pectoris, essential HTN, and cardiac dysrhythmias (atrial flutter, atrial fibrillation, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia) Adverse effects: dizziness, flushing, headache, edema of the ankles and feet
  4. Nifedipine (Procardia): Class: calcium channel blocker Use: angina pectoris usually combined with beta blocker, essential HTN