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NATOPS Exam Questions Bank (Updated 202 4 )
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NATOPS publications provide the best available operating instructions for________. However, no manual can address every situation or be a substitute for ________. Operational situations may require modifications of the procedure contained therein. Read these products thoroughly. As an aircrewman, it is your responsibility to have a ______ knowledge of their contents. - ✔✔most circumstances / sound judgement / complete Which is not a defined change recommendation for NATOPS changes? - ✔✔Immediate Revised text is indicated by a _________ in the outside margin of the page. - ✔✔Black vertical line Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed. - ✔✔Caution Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed. - ✔✔Warning Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, that must be emphasized.
- ✔✔Note _______ means extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight are at the discretion of the pilot in command. - ✔✔Land as soon as practicable The MH-60R primary missions include what five missions? - ✔✔SUW / ASW / EW / CC / NCO Secondary missions include _______, air warfare, health services, fleet support operations, _______, logistics, and naval special warfare. - ✔✔Amphibious warfare / intelligence operations _____ significantly reduces the field of view and the success rate of obtaining visual contact with the survivor when performing SAR lookout duties from the SO window. Due to the visual restrictions, dedicated SAR missions should consider removal of ____ to enhance probability of detecting the survivor. - ✔✔LHEP / LHEP
Use of the Sonobuoy Launcher Window is __________________. - ✔✔Prohibited The center rear seat shall be removed if _______. - ✔✔RAST probe is installed The Simula seat _______ be removed during flights not requiring its use. When installed the simula seat creates an egress hazard for the aircrewman. - ✔✔Should The primary passenger seat is the _____ seat position during single-passenger flights. - ✔✔Instructor The center rear seat _____ be removed if RAST probe is installed. The RAST probe prevents proper stroking of the seat in the event of a crash. - ✔✔Shall All essential engine electrical functions are powered by the ______. The engine _____ contains separate windings providing ac power to the ignitor assembly, EDECU, and Ng signal to the vertical instruments. - ✔✔Alternator The _____ attenuates the magnitude and reduces the duration of the peak vibratory loads produced by the main rotor at the main motor blade passage vibration frequency. - ✔✔Active Vibration Control System (AVCS) In flight or on deck, the near instantaneous nature of the AVCS commanded vibrations can sometimes cause a vibration spike or a "______" that is felt throughout the aircraft. It can range in intensity from barely noticeable to extremely uncomfortable and excessive. - ✔✔Bump Water contaminated fuel may cause fluctuations/surges in one or both engines with no associated _______ or _______ caution. - ✔✔FUEL PRESS / FUEL FLTR BYPASS A pressure refueling port is provided for standard ___ psi pressure refueling on the ground with or without electrical power. - ✔✔ 55 The minimum accumulator pressure required for starting the APU is approximately _____ psi. It can be recharged by using the accumulator hand pump. With ac power available, the accumulator is charged by the backup hydraulic pump. - ✔✔2,
The _____ _____ must be extended before the _____ ______ can be reeled out, and the _____ ______ must be seated in order for to retract the _____ _____. - ✔✔MAIN PROBE / messenger cable / messenger cable / MAIN PROBE the RAD ALT digital display indicates altitude up to _____ feet AGL. - ✔✔5, The mini caution summary displays the _____ most recent active cautions in order of occurrence, with the most recent active caution at the top. - ✔✔ 10 The pilots can control the hoist in either direction at a fixed speed of ____ fpm. - ✔✔ 100 These limit switches of the rescue hoist are ______ when the ______ CONTROL HOIST switch is operating the hoist. - ✔✔inoperative / BACKUP The portable fire extinguishers provide ____ to ____ seconds of continuous discharge. - ✔✔ 25 - 30 Aircrewman safety belts do not provide impact protection; therefore, use of the belts ______ be restricted to only those occurrences when mission accomplishment requires personnel to be out of their seats. Such belts _______ be worn when strapped into a seat. - ✔✔shall / shall not __________ Aircrewman safety belt anchor points (V-rings) are located in the cabin overhead. - ✔✔ 5 Using loose pyrotechnics, smoking, or striking matches while working on the aircraft, or using any flame- producing device within ____ feet of the helicopter, may result in a fire. - ✔✔ 50 During all fueling operations, fire-extinguishing equipment ____ be readily available. - ✔✔shall True or False: Flameouts may be encountered following nose down ground operations in excess of 10 minutes when using JP-5, JP-8, or equivalent fuels. - ✔✔True All PQMs and aircrewman qualified in model are authorized to perform servicing and handling of the aircraft when _____________ _____________ ____________ are not available. - ✔✔qualified maintenance personnel
When is PIRST authorized? - ✔✔When premixed with fuel Failure to monitor fuel cell pressure gauge may result in fuel cell over pressurization. Internal fuel cell pressure greater than ___ psi can cause rapid fuel cell expansion, resulting in aircraft damage and fuel spill. - ✔✔ 2 Increase of fuel tank internal pressure, as indicated by the tank pressure gauge entering the red band during pressure refueling, denotes a ________ ________. - ✔✔clogged vent When holding PRE-CHECK VALVES during pressure refueling, fuel flow to main tanks should stop or be significantly reduced within how many seconds? - ✔✔ 5 - 10 True or False: Gravity refueling is authorized with APU operating. - ✔✔False True or False: If RAST operations are to be conducted, no servicing shall be performed on external tank/AUX tank configured aircraft, which will lower the vertical clearance to less than 12 inches between the bottom of the AUX tank (not including the fins) and the deck. - ✔✔True Failure to return the manual selector valve handle to the ______ position prior to pressurizing the utility hydraulic system _____ result in damage to the servicing reservoir. - ✔✔vertical / will Deviating from a. prescribed tie down configuration _____ result in oversight of tie down removal, which may lead to an attempt to launch with tie downs attached, uncontrolled flight, or dynamic rollover. - ✔✔may If a limit is exceeded to the extent that a red "XXX" is indicated, the crew shall ___________. - ✔✔Land as soon as practicable Minimum planned fuel on landing shall be no less than _____ pounds. - ✔✔ 600 Airspeed operating limitations with dome at or above trail (cable extended 10 feet, dome approximately 6 feet below aircraft) ____ KIAS, 45 AOB. Dome below trail - ____ KIAS, 15 AOB. - ✔✔70 / 70
1) LAWS
- Altitude hold (RADALT or BARALT) - ✔✔True True or False: Flight into forecast or known moderate or severe icing conditions is not recommended. - ✔✔False; prohibited Except in ____________, helicopter emergency egress lighting system (ADHEELS and IHEELS) shall be operational for all overwater flights requiring passengers / non-aircrew in the cabin. - ✔✔Emergency situations True or False: Gunner belts do not provide impact protection, therefore, use of those belts shall be restricted to only those occurrences when mission accomplishment requires persons to be out of their seats. Such belts shall not be worn when strapped into a seat. - ✔✔True WARNING: Night shipboard external cargo operations present serious hazards to personnel and equipment and shall not be conducted except ____________. - ✔✔for reasons of operational necessity True or False: Day VMC flights from air-capable ships shall include a minimum of two H2P's and one helicopter aircrewman, or one HAC, one qualified observer, and one helicopter aircrewman. - ✔✔True True or False: Night or IMC flights from air-capable ships shall include a minimum of one HAC, one PQM, and one helicopter aircrewman. - ✔✔True Mission planning _______ be conducted in accordance with CNAF 3710.7 (series) publications. - ✔✔shall Each flight shall be thoroughly debriefed as soon as practical upon return by the ______ /Flight Lead. - ✔✔Pilot in command While conducting a preflight: in each location, inspect for corrosion, Foreign Object Damage (FOD), condition, and _______. - ✔✔security On preflight, the sonobuoy launcher safety valve shall be in the _____ position. - ✔✔SAFE
Care must be taken when opening the nose avionics compartment to prevent ________. - ✔✔water intrusion damage Stowing articles or equipment under seats or in seat wells ______ interfere with proper seat stroking and reduce their energy absorbing performance during impact. - ✔✔can In winds over _____ knots or nearby jet blast/rotor wash, the hydraulics bay cover can be blown off when in transit or in the open position and may cause loss of the bay cover and/or cause personnel injury. - ✔✔ 10 Daggered steps ___________ be accomplished on subsequent flights on the same day. - ✔✔need not True or False: For ADTS equipped aircraft, utility mode with no DTU 1 advisory may be indicative of an invalid mission, recorder and/or map DTD load or failure to properly mount. - ✔✔True Helicopter ___________ not be flown if the stabilator fails any check involving manual operation, position indications, or warnings. - ✔✔shall When +FLIR ON is selected, the FLIR turret automatically moves to the _______ position. Ensure personnel and equipment are clear of the FLIR turret area before applying power. - ✔✔Forward True or False: Failure to ensure SEATED indication on RMCU may result in loss of TA. The SEATED indication is the only reliable means of ensuring TA is locked. - ✔✔True After _____ ________ of mission power being applied in temps above 5 °C (45 minutes below 5 °C) a continued dome battery charge of 0% may be indicative of a failed dome battery. - ✔✔10 minutes Flight with a LAUNCH/JETT SW FAIL advisory and stores loaded on the helicopter _______ result in inadvertent stores release on activation of weight on wheels, resulting in personnel injury or death from dropped stores. - ✔✔may If TA battery fails to charge to at least 60% after ____ hours, this may be an indication of a failing TA battery which may affecting pinging/folding/unfolding operation. - ✔✔1.5 hours
On launching from an aviation ship/amphibious assault aviation ships, the helicopter __________ be rolled forward slightly to make sure chocks/tiedowns are removed. - ✔✔may True or False: Regardless of deck status, ship maneuvers (to include speed changes) shall be restricted anytime an aircraft is on deck to avoid conditions that will expose the aircraft to direct contact with the sea or waves over the deck. If there is any doubt in the ability to predict or avoid such conditions, the rotor system shall be disengaged as soon as possible. Contact between an engaged rotor system and the sea can result in catastrophic rotor damage and the loss of life of aircrew and deck personnel. - ✔✔True The Wiggins/NI HIFR assembly ______ be installed backwards. The aircrewman must ensure the emergency release T-handle is located near the Wiggins fitting that attaches to the aircraft fitting. Opposite connection is possible and will force the helicopter to shear the hoist to effect an emergency breakaway. - ✔✔Can Physical contact between a submarine and the dipping sonar can result in loss of the TA. Consider conducting a __________ to clear the area prior to commanding the TA to increased depths. - ✔✔shallow dip (90ft) After initially engaging CABLE ANGLE HVR, the AFCS takes the first _____ seconds to calculate lateral and longitudinal velocity biases to account for environmental factors such as current, winds, sea state, etc. After these biases are calculated, the AFCS makes flight control inputs to null these environmental factors and provide centered solution that keeps the sonar cable perpendicular to the water surface. Therefore, the most effective way to center the cable is for the crew to provide minimal inputs to keep the cable within limits while allowing the AFCS to develop its own solution over the first _____ seconds. - ✔✔ 25 Excessive aircraft pitch or roll attitudes (during TA deployment) may result in _______________. - ✔✔All of the above (cable miswrap, dome separation, CFIT). True or False: Dipping sonar missions require clear, concise communications between crew members. The sensor operator shall maintain continuous communication with pilots concerning dipping sonar raising and lowering and any possible danger to the helicopter. - ✔✔True Abrupt or excessive collective inputs while TA is submerged and array is folded may result in ______ separation. - ✔✔TA SO _______ maintain an active sonar scan during all raise and lowering operations. - ✔✔Shall
Cable angle disconnect circuits interrupt the cable angle inputs to the AFCC for _____ seconds each time the transducer is stopped. This prevents erratic helicopter movements due to cable waves. Aircrew may expect momentary instability when the transducer is stopped, the cable angle button will _____________ during these periods, indicating cable angle mode is momentarily disengaged. - ✔✔9 / flash Raising the TA with the cable angle indicator outside the _____ ring _____ result in severe oscillations after the TA breaks the water surface. - ✔✔Inner / may Except when executing troubleshooting emergency procedures, _________ mode shall only be used when dome is submerged. - ✔✔AUX During manual lower of the TA, release LOWER pushbutton approximately ____ feet prior to the desired depth (15 to 30 feet prior if SLOW speed). - ✔✔ 45 While raising, if the TA is manually stopped after clearing the water but before the trail position, wait ____ seconds before continuing to raise the TA. - ✔✔ 10 If transducer depth is changed with array unfolded, reeling machine speed is automatically limited to ______. - ✔✔Slow Aircraft ______ not fly at low altitude over a burning Mk _____ marker. Ignition of the second candle can be forceful, with flame occasionally ejecting up to 50 feet. - ✔✔should / 58 If sea states of ____ or above (Douglas sea state), it is recommended that the swimmer deploy on the hoist. - ✔✔ 3 With a visible horizon, NVD aircrews may maneuver the aircraft into the wind without use of the Windline Rescue Pattern in order to __________. - ✔✔maintain sight of survivor One or two wheel landing operations shall not be conducted except __________. - ✔✔for reasons of operational necessity
Procedures indicated by an asterisk (*) are considered ___________. These steps must be performed immediately, without reference to the checklist. - ✔✔Critical memory items The aircraft may maintain some degree of buoyancy in the fuel cell transition section approximately __________ after water landing. - ✔✔2 to 5 minutes True or False: Aircrew emergency crash position is sitting erect with head firmly against the headrest, elbows tucked in tightly, cross arms, grasp opposite shoulder harness, and feet flat on the deck. - ✔✔True True or False: In order to minimize the potential for serious injury, instructor seat occupant should assume crash position and lower head until their chin touches their chest prior to an emergency landing or ditching. - ✔✔True If sonobuoy launcher pressure is less than ________ psi, the last sonobuoys in sequence may not jettison, with system securing at _______ psi to ensure safe separation of launched sonobuoys. - ✔✔1,100 / 250 Minimum pressure to jettison a full sonobuoy launcher is ____ psi. - ✔✔1, True or False: CMDS stores can only be jettisoned by selective jettison. - ✔✔True A ______ is a failure of the weapon to fire satisfactorily or perform as designed. - ✔✔Malfunction A _____ is the unintentional interruption in the normal cycle of operation. - ✔✔Stoppage any suspected reeling machine malfunction, caution light, or error code should be handled initially with the _____________________. - ✔✔Reeling machine malfunction emergency procedure True or False: If RMCU ENABLE/DISABLE switch is placed in DISABLE position while TA is in transit, a sudden stop will occur, possibly resulting in a miswrap. - ✔✔True
____________: A procedure to be performed as a means of recovering the dome when all reeling machine modes will not recover the dome or when the aircraft needs to depart the hover due to safety of flight. - ✔✔Freestream Recovery ACST 1 allows operators to listen to dipping sonar or sonobuoys. Can also be used for _______ with dipping sonar. - ✔✔Underwater communications True or False: A complete alignment should occur within 15 minutes (EGIs). - ✔✔True Both EGIs are required for full ______ functionality. - ✔✔AFCS The Payed Out Cable Length is displayed in the range 0 to _____ feet with a resolution of 1 foot. - ✔✔2, A __________ is defined as initializing a device by selecting the specified device under the diagnostics display and performing an INIT through the keyset. - ✔✔Soft init A ________ is defined as initializing a device by pulling the circuit breaker for the specified device, waiting 20 seconds, resetting the circuit breaker, then performing a soft INIT. - ✔✔Hard init Unknown error codes should not be cleared more than three times. Upon clearing unknown error code the third time, the crew shall _________. - ✔✔Cease dipping operations If dome is in air, do not attempt to lower TA into water with _________ selected. Electro Static Discharge (ESD) sequence is bypassed and will result in damage to electronic components. - ✔✔Auxiliary Hydraulic Mode True or False: A sonar cable snag condition is indicated by the SNAG light illuminating on the RMCU and illumination of the DOME SNAGGED caution. - ✔✔True True or False: All RMCU issued error codes begin with either a 1 or a 2. 1 indicates issued by the RMCU. 2 indicates issued by the RMIU. - ✔✔False; RMIU (1), RMCU (2)
Unfolding array disables __________ ___________ ___________. - ✔✔Bottom proximity detector During VERTREP, the ICS call for "jettison immediately". Load endangering safety of flight" is _______ ______ _______. - ✔✔Pickle, Pickle, Pickle Define: SWEEP for conducting overland operations. - ✔✔Size, Slope, Suitability, Surface Winds Elevation Escape (Egress) Power When powering up the mission display and flight displays in temperatures of 0 degrees celsius or colder, the displays will illuminate within _______ seconds, but up to ______ minutes may be required before full performance is available. - ✔✔15 seconds / 15 minutes For in-air temperatures above 5 °C, the normal charging time required before unfolding the array or transmitting actively is approximately __ minutes after STR power-on. At in-air temperatures of 5 °C and below, up to ___minutes may be required before successful array unfolding or active transmissions - ✔✔10 / 45 Mode ____ is a non-secure method used by ships to track aircraft and other ships (32 code combinations for the APX-118; 4,096 code combinations are available in the APX-123; military only). - ✔✔ 1 Mode __ is used by aircraft to make carrier controlled approaches to ships during inclement weather. - ✔✔ 2 Mode ___ is the standard system also used by commercial aircraft to relay their position to ground controllers throughout the world for Air Traffic Control (ATC) (4,096 code combinations, commercial and military). - ✔✔3/A Mode ____ turns altitude transmissions ON/OFF for Mode 3/A, Mode S, and Mode 5. - ✔✔C
Mode __________ is a Civil Air Traffic Control Surveillance System that can respond to selective interrogations and provide air-to-air and air-to-ground data link of aircraft identification and flight parameters - ✔✔S Mode ____ is secure encrypted IFF (military only) - ✔✔ 4 Mode ___ is a performance and security upgrade to existing IFF systems (military only). - ✔✔ 5 The ______ transponder supports Modes 1, 2, 3A/C, 4, S, and 5. - ✔✔APX- 123 What are the X Channels used for in TACAN? - ✔✔FAA What are the Y Channels used for in TACAN? - ✔✔Tactical use Failure to secure ____ _____ _____ before disconnecting sonar dome from sonar cable may result in personnel injury or death. - ✔✔Dipping SONAR power The goal of ______ ________ _________ (____) is to improve mission effectiveness, minimize crew- preventable errors, maximize crew coordination, and optimize risk management. - ✔✔Crew Resource Management (CRM) _____________: The ability to maintain awareness of what is happening in the aircraft and in the mission. - ✔✔Situational awareness __________: The willingness to actively participate in the ability to state and maintain one's position. - ✔✔Assertiveness _________: The ability to use logic and sound judgement base on the information available. - ✔✔Decision making ________: The ability to clearly and accurately send and acknowledge information, instructions, or commands, and provide useful feedback. - ✔✔Communication
To obtain a grade of _____ in each subarea on a NATOPS flight, an evaluee must demonstrate that standard procedures were executed in accordance with the provisions of this manual and its subsets (i.e., checklists). - ✔✔Qualified When HELO STB is active, helo symbol becomes fixed to ___________ display while the plot moves in relation to helo. - ✔✔its current position on the used in the ACST analysis displays to remove the text from the displays. The ______ bezel key is used to speed up screen refreshes. - ✔✔L True or False: Blanking of the onboard FLIR laser is provided by the installed MWS/FLIR equipment, when enabled by the operator. - ✔✔True Up to ____ Hellfire (AGM-114) missiles can be carried on SUW mission profiles. - ✔✔ 8 The ASE system consists of what 3 systems? - ✔✔ALQ-144C, AAR-47B(V), ALE- 47 Pop-up in which display area opens the SIM mode control menu. - ✔✔Display area 1A Display Area 2: For altitudes above _______ft AGL, radar altimeter altitude value will be replaced with red Xs. - ✔✔5, The ________ _________ function allows the crew to display mission and flight data on a map view for post-mission analysis and report generation. - ✔✔Post-mission analysis The aircraft may be flown in a "__________" mode without the PC cards installed. While the mission computer and radar remain available to the crew in this mode, the following are unavailable: ISAR mode of radar, ESM, dipping sonar, acoustic processing, ASE system, missile and torpedo employment, ASW training simulation, Link 16, Ku band TCDL. - ✔✔Utility The following specific conditions must be satisfied before entering SIM mode:
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Formatted PCMIA cards are installed All stores are verified (green text) on ORD CTRL page No torpedos are loaded No Hellfire missiles are loaded (live or training) No OTHER or UNKNOWN stores indicated on ORD CTRL page - ✔✔All PIUs are functional True or False: The LRD and LTM are Class 3, non-eye safe, non-visible lasers. - ✔✔False; Class 4 To ensure the IR scene is adequately recreated, variations in the response of each pixel must be accounted for. Even when all pixels receive identical inputs, manufacturing variations may cause each pixel to have a different output. Performing a ______________ can accommodate for this variability - ✔✔Non-uniformity correction (NUC) The ELRF is a Class ______, eye safe laser. - ✔✔ 1 If the ____ or the ASW search area is changed while AMP is computing a pattern, AMP discontinues the pattern processing and waits for a new pattern request. - ✔✔TOI On the aircraft, the user can request an AMP optimized pattern and allow AMP to run for minimum time, ___ minutes, or ___ minutes to compute the pattern. - ✔✔5 / 15 _____ feet below the aircraft, the RMIU commands the ST/R into ESD protect mode. - ✔✔ 20 BOTTOM caution light will activate when the TA is within ____ feet of the bottom. - ✔✔ 50 The ______ controls the reeling machine functions, regulates smooth transitions of transducer dipping activities, and performs the reeling machine BIT. - ✔✔RMIU True or False: Available CFS commands for SSQ-53 DIFAR sonobuoys include RF channel, RF power (on/off), life, hydrophone (standard DIFAR, shallow omni, or calibrated omni), acoustic automatic gain (AGC) (fast/slow/off), and depth. - ✔✔False; no depth
