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NPIAS - Correct answer-Federal plan for airports, addresses development and planning on projects eligible for AIP. State Aviation System Plans - Correct answer-more detailed on how airports within a state can meet states needs Metropolitan or Regional System Plans - Correct answer-more specific indexable and consider capacity, intermodal access and local travelers Airport Areas - Correct answer-Airside, Landside Landside - Correct answer-intermodal access,parking, rental cars ticketing, bag claims, etc Airside Areas - Correct answer-Runways, taxiways, fence, etc. ALP-Grant Assurance 29 - Correct answer-requires ALP be updated at all times, shows land, terminal and facilities. protection zones, approach areas, proposed development and unusual design features ALP Contents - Correct answer-Standard ALP contains following: 1 Cover sheet-signature blocks, and location maps 2 ALP Sheet-data of existing and fyture airfield layout 3 Airport Layout Drawing 4 Airport Airspace Drawing-intended to show imaginary surfaces 5 Inner Portion of Approach Drawing-profile view of runway approaches and obstructions and surfaces associated with the Terminal Instrment Procedures (TERPS) 6 Terminal Area Drawing-and plan depicting terminal and surrounding facilities and heights. lighting and obstructions, also highway routes to and from airport and main business district 7 Land Use Drawing-on Airport and off airport depicting existing and recommended use of all land with property line to at least the 65 DNL noise contours 8 Runway Departure Surfaces Drawing-depicts available departure surfaces 9 Airport Property Map-how tracts were acquired and easements, termed EXHIBIT A on AIP grant applications 10 Data sheet-airport and runway data tables and wind rose(diagram showing percentage of time wind blows from a direction and speed)
- Facilities layout-exisisting and future facilities 12 Utilities drawing-location and capacity of utilities
13 Airport access plan-major routes and modes of transportation that serve airport ALP is signed by FAA making it a legal document, drawings typically done with computer design software that link features on map with Geographic Information Systems (GIS), FAA uses eALP which allows sharing ALP data 5 Primary Functions of ALP - Correct answer-1 FAA approved plan required to receive AIP and PFC funding 2 blueprint for airport development 3 public document that serves as a record of aeronautical requirements 4 enables FAA and Sponsor to plan for future improvements 5 working tool for staff, Notice of Propsed Construction or Alteration-FAA StNdard Form SF- 7460 - 1 - Correct answer- notification of construction or alteration has to be given 30 days in advance Notice of Landing Area Proposal-Form SF- 7480 - 1 - Correct answer-notification of activation or alteration of a landing area ALP - Correct answer-ALP should be Reviewed and Vaidated every 2-7 years. Necessary when existing ALP cannot accommodate forecast needs or meet design standards Grant Assurance Requirements for ALP - Correct answer-1 Property lines 2 location and nature of existing and proposed facilities (ie. runways, taxiway, parking lots) 3 existing and proposed non-aviation areas and improvements (ie. parking lots, access roads, water retention ponds) ALP Approval - Correct answer-FAA approves that ALP must be Safe, Useful and Efficient. ALP must be submitted at Airports District Office (ADO) Safe - Correct answer-safe operation of aircraft Useful - Correct answer-make best use of airport land while minimizes impact of offairport structures Efficient - Correct answer-planned capacity is sufficient for forecast demand FAA ALP 3 Levels of Approval - Correct answer-Unconditional (met environmental processing), Conditional(environmental processing has not been completed for all items) and Mixed (completed elements can proceed others cannot until approval is received) National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) - Correct answer-review for environmental
airport for up to 20 years, includes public involvement, FAA does not require that it has to be updated at certain time schedule but it is recommended (usually conducted every 8-15 years) Plans are completely tailored to individual airport, may be encouraged by ADO to receive funding for AIP projects. Goal of Master Plan - Correct answer-provide framework for future development that is cost effective and satisfies the needs of the airport, market and community while balancing environmental and socioeconomic impacts. Sequenced into Airport Capital Improvement Plan and eligible for federal funding Master Plan is intended to produce - Correct answer-1 technical report-analysis conducted 2 summary report-facts, conclusions and recommendations 3 Updated ALP 4 Webpage-airport information and key elements of master plan 5 Public Information Kit-visual aids, models, brochures to support plan Acceptance vs. Approval - Correct answer-Accepting-FAA has reviewed the elements of the plan to ensure sound planning techniques were applied. The FAA Approves the forecast and ALP Master Plan Part 1: Pre-Planning - Correct answer-type and level of detail of study needs to be determined Consultant Selection Guidance - Correct answer-Architectural, Engineering and Planning Consultant Srvices for Airport Grant Projects FAA AC 150/5100-14, AIRPORT CONSULTANTS COUNCIL's (ACC) reference "Guidelines to Selecting Airport Consultants". Consultant selection process is governed by the BROOKS ACT - requires selection be made based on qualifications and be awarded by fair and open selection process , consultants are usually hired before issuing RFPs, RFQs or Statements of Qualifications (SOQ). Process start with invitation to submit information via RFP or RFQ Topics addressed in Master Plan study - Correct answer-1 Goals and Objectives-why is MP study being conducted and key issues for future development 2.Data Availability-available forecasts and current data and data needed to be collected
- Forecast Horizons-ie. 5, 10 ,15 years. Planning Activity Levels are increasingly being used
- Environmental Considerations-Operator should determine if Environmental Assessment (EA) or Environmental Impact Study (EIS) will be required
- Schedules-decision points requiring FAA or Sponsor approval to proceed
- Deliverables-work and level of detail required
- Coordination of Public Involvement- level of public involvement based on complexity of study
- Budget-scope of work and fees
Part 2: Public Involvement - Correct answer-An effective PUBLIC AWARENESS CAMPAIGN is essential. The public involvement program shares information and collaborates on decision-making. Program should include Officials, residents, travelers, tenants, FAA-group known as stakeholders. TECHNICAL ADVISORY COMMITTEE (TAC) and CITIZENS ADVISORY COMMITTEE (CAC) - Committees that facilitate involvement Part 3: Environmental Considerations - Correct answer-identify potential environmental impact and required permits. Airport Environmental Handbook FAA Order 5050.4A should be consulted a guide. There are approx. 40 laws, executive orders and regulations governing environment ie. Clean Air Act, Clean Water Act, Endangered Species Act. A balance needs to be achieved between man-made and natural environment Part 4: Existing Conditions and Issues - Correct answer-aka Inventory (of pertinent data). Historical Review of airport, Airspace Structures, NAVAIDS, airport-related land use. aeronautical activity, socioeconomic factors Classifications used in this element of Master Plan - Correct answer-1. Airfield/Airspace
- Commercial Passenger Termial Facilities
- General Aviation Facilities
- Cargo Facilities
- Support Facilities ie. ARFF, Airport admin, fuel storage, control tower
- Access. Circulation and Parking
- Utilities Non-aeronautical Facilities Part 5: Aviation Demand Forecasts - Correct answer-Forecasts of future levels of aviation activity are the basis for effective airport planning. Short-term (up to 5 years) near-term development, operational planing and environmental improvement. Medium-term- 6 - 10 year time frame used in planning capital improvements. Long-term-10+ years helpful for general planting. There are a number of forecasts including the OFFICIAL AIRLINE GUIDE (OAG) Aviation Deman Elements - Correct answer-1. Aircraft Operation (take off or landing)
- Local Operations-arrivals and departures that stay in local traffic pattern and training flights within 20 miles of airport, instrument approaches
- Itinerant Operations-arrivals and departures other than local
- Enplaned Passengers-#of paying passengers that depart airport on commercial flight
- Enplaned Air Cargo-total tonnage departing on aircraft
- Aircraft Mix-categories of aircraft: less than 12,500 pounds, 12,500-60,000 pounds and over 60,000 and helicopter
Part 10: Financial Feasibility Analysis - Correct answer-ability to fund recommended projects Design Aircraft - Correct answer-in most cases composite aircraft with 3 parameters:
- Aircraft Approach Category (AAC),
- Airplane Design Group (ADG)
- Runway Design Code (RDC) Largest aircraft using airport more than 500 times/year Runway Design Code (RDC) - Correct answer-Design standards to which a runway is built.. The Aircraft Approach Category (AAC)-speed, Airplane Design Group (ADG)-wing span and tail height and approach visibility minimums form the RDC of a runway Taxiway Design Group (TDG) - Correct answer-undercarriage dimensions of aircraft width and fillet (corner connecting 2 taxiways) Taxiway Edge Safety Margin (TESM) - Correct answer-pavement in the form of fillets for main gear to go around corners Airport 3 Major Areas - Correct answer-1. Landside
- Terminal
- Airside Movement Areas - Correct answer-required by Title 14 CFR Part 139 area to be used by air carrier operations ie. runways and taxiways and areas used for taxiing, takeoff and landing Movement areas generally under positive control of ATCT and include runways and taxiways and other areas specified in Letters of Agreement ( LOA) or MOU between ATCT and airport management Nonmovement Areas - Correct answer-Loading ramps, aircraft parking aprons unpaved areas and areas airport management has decided air carriers won't use. Any airport with ATCT has to must delieate movement and nonmovement areas aircraft and vehicles don't need ATCT permission to move in the nonmovement areas but do need to follow airport rules Airport Certification Manual (ACM) - Correct answer-Movement areas listed in ACM need to meet Part 139 standards, nonmovement areas don't but shouldn't be neglected Airport Operations Area (AOA) - Correct answer-commonly considered '"airside" it is area used for take off,, landing or surface maneuvering and is a security term not FAA term. Encompasses movement and nonmovement areas
Substantial Use - Correct answer-500 or more annual itinerant operations or largest scheduled commercial aircraft FAA Requirements for federally funded airport development projects - Correct answer-
- Safe Operations
- Increasing capacity and efficiency
- Reducing delays
- Economic viability
- Noise reduction
- Environmental protection Runway Design Code/Design Aircraft components - Correct answer-1st-approach speed Aircraft Approach Category (ACC) 2nd-aircraft wingspan or tail height Aircraft Design Group (ADG) 3rd-Instrument flight visibility Airport Reference Code (ARC) - Correct answer-Used for planning and design purposes-does not limit aircraftthat are able to operate safely on airport. it is the airports highest Runway Design Code (RDC) minus the visibility component of the RDC. Runway layout - Correct answer-metorological conditions, topography, volume of aircraft expected, instrument approach layout. Design aircraft should be able to use runway 95% of the year within it's maximum crosswind componentp Four basic runway configurations - Correct answer-1. Single
- Open V
- Parallel
- Intersecting Runway threshold - Correct answer-beginning portion of runway used for takeoffs and landings Displaced threshold - Correct answer-located a distance down the runway may be used for takeoffs and rollouts Runway Safety Area (RSA) - Correct answer-runway or taxiway and surrounding area suitable for reducing the risk of damage to aircraft due to running off the runway or taxiway Runway Safety Area-width of 120'-500' depending on aircraft design group Taxiway Safety Area-49'-262' Engineered Material Arresting System (EMAS) - Correct answer-soft ground arrested system developed if there is not enough room for a Runway Safety Area (RSA) Runway Protection Zone (RPZ) - Correct answer-trapezoid shape enhancing protection of people and property on tge ground. Some uses are permitted ie. golf course
Hangar apron - Correct answer-in front of hangar that allows aircraft moving in and out of hangar Stand Guidance Systems - Correct answer-visual aids on the terminal building that tell a pilot if they are on the centerline and when to stop to park Heliports - Correct answer-the FAA has exempted operators of heliports from complying with Part 139 requirements Four Heliport Design Types - Correct answer-1. General Aviation
- Transport
- Hospital
- Helipad GA Heliport - Correct answer-used by individuals, corporations, and helicopter taxi services Transport Heliport - Correct answer-used by air carrier operators for scheduled and unscheduled service with large helicopters Hospital Heliports - Correct answer-limited to air ambulance and hospital functions Design Helicopter - Correct answer-used in designing heliports, it reflects the maximum weight, contact load/minimum contact area, length, and rotor diameter. Other Heliport considerations - Correct answer-Turbulence, electromagnetic effects (effects instruments) Touchdown and Lift-off Area(TLOF), Final Approach and Take-Off Area (FATO) Touchdown and Lift-off Area (TLOF) - Correct answer-load bearing and typically paved, centered in the FATO Final Approach and Take-Off Area (FATO) - Correct answer-area where the final phase of tge approach to a hover or landing is completed and where a take-off is initiated Seaplane Base - Correct answer-area of water used for taking off and landing Seaplane - Correct answer-conventional airplane with floats instead of wheels also called floatplanes Flying boat - Correct answer-bottom of boats fuselage is used for landing Amphibian - Correct answer-flying boats and floatplane that have wheels Sea-lane - Correct answer-defined path for taking off and landing
US Coast Guard - Correct answer-charged with marking and lighting navigable waterways Seaplane Base Layout Plan (SBLP) - Correct answer-seaplane based development financed by the FAA requires an FAA approved SBLP Construction Phases - Correct answer-1. Pre-design
- Design
- Pre-construction
- Construction
- Inspection Pre-design Conference - Correct answer-after engineer consultant is selected and held when preliminary (not final) design work is completed.. Airport Sponsor holds Predesign Conference to discuss design, safety, construction phasing and environmental Pre-bid conference - Correct answer-for large projects or where required for procurement. Meeting is held to explain contract requirements Pre-construction Conference - Correct answer-held by Airport Sponsor to discuss critical project issues Change Orders - Correct answer-change in contract. Wages cannot be changed. Change orders can be + or - 25% of contract cost, FAA doesn't approve change orders but a list of change orders should be sent to the FAA in case a Grant amendment is required Supplemental Agreement - Correct answer-a separate agreement when work that exceeds 25% of contract cost. Wage rates may be a part of a supplemental agreement As Builts - Correct answer-finsl plans depict construction ALP must be updated and set of ASBuilts sent to the FAA FAA Form 7460-2 Notice of Actual Construction or Alteration - Correct answer-required to be filed when an approved construction or alteration is completed FAR Part 77-Safe, Efficient Use and Preservation of the Navigable Airspace - Correct answer-Establishes procedures for reporting construction to the FAA that may be a potential obstruction to safe air navigation.
- standards for determining obstructions
- requirements for notice of prposed construction
- aeronautical studies to determine safety of obstructions
- provides for public hearings on effect of proposed construction
- provides for establishing antenna farms
Peak Hour Demand - Correct answer-heaviest concentrations at certain times of day Four Audiences to consider in Terminal Design - Correct answer-1. Passengers 2. Airlines 3.Airport Operators
- Community Annual Passenger Volume - Correct answer-used to determine size of terminal Peak Hour Volume - Correct answer-used for terminal design Airport Types - Correct answer-1. Origination/Destination (O&D)-airports where 70%-90% of passengers begin or end their travel
- Transfer (connecting)-typically 50% of enplanements transfer to another flight, hubs are often transfer airports
- Through-high percentage of originating passengers and low percentage of originating flights Aircraft Mix - Correct answer-different sizes and styles of aircraft affecting terminal layout Terminal space needed per passenger - Correct answer-approx. .08-.12 sqft per annual enplaned passenger or 150 ft/design hour passenger 55% of space is rentable, 45% is non-rentable (hallways, mechanical, etc) Simple Terminal - Correct answer-rectangle building with parking on one side and ramp on the other Linear Terminal - Correct answer-lengthened simple design Curvilinear Terminal - Correct answer-used when space is limited Unit-terminal Airport - Correct answer-multiple terminals Combined-unit Terminal Building - Correct answer-multiple airlines share one building Multiple-unit Terminal - Correct answer-separate terminal built for each airline Centralized terminal process - Correct answer-all passenger processing occurs in one building Decentralized Terminal Process - Correct answer-passenger processing separated into multiple buildings (ie. ticketing and screening in one, boarding in another)
Hybrid Terminal Layout - Correct answer-modifying building that no longer meets needs of stakeholder 5 Terminal design concepts - Correct answer-1. simple
- pier
- satellite
- linear
- transporter Pier - Correct answer-piers extend from main terminal onto the ramp-allows centralized passenger processing Satellite Terminal - Correct answer-gates located at ends of long hallways or connected by Automated People Movers (APM). Follows decentralized passenger processing Mobile Lounge or Transporter Terminal - Correct answer-plane is parked on a hard-stand and bus transpoerts passengers to aircraft 5 Airport Touch Points - Correct answer-1. Physical
- Subliminal
- Human
- Procedural
- Communicative Common Use Terminal Equipment (CUTE) - Correct answer-ie. buildings, equipment, technology, and infrastructure Wayfinding - Correct answer-a self guided journey. Effective wayfinding begins with the airport layout (logical layouts vs. complex) should encompass from intermodal to arrivals and departures and back to intermodala Effective Signing includes - Correct answer-CONSPICUOUS - colors and lighting COMPREHENSIBLE - oriented to be read from the perspective of the viewer LEGIBLE - large enough to be comfortably read LOCATION - signs should be located at decision points Federal Inspection Service (FIS) - Correct answer-includes immigration, customs, agriculture, and public health. International passengers must be segregated until they exit the FIS Custom Accelerated Passenger Inspection Service (CAPIS) - Correct answer-separate immigration and checkpoints- time consuming for passengers and labor intensive. Other options- ONE STOP- combines immigration and customs and RED-GREEN-Alliws those who don't have items to declare to be separated from those who do and bypassing inspection
Extraordinary Circumstances - Correct answer-normally categorically excluded action may cause significant adverse environmental impacts - determined by FAA Significance Thresholds - Correct answer-project that usually is categorically excluded exceed significance thresholds listed in FAA Order 5050.4B Environmental Assessment (EA) - Correct answer-performed when a project is not categorically excluded or involves extraordinary circumstances- takes a hard look at at expected environmental effects of proposed action Finding of No Significance Impact (FONSI) - Correct answer-prepared based on results of the EA if impacts are not significant, may also be issued if Airport Sponsor takes mitigation actions Record of Decision (ROD) - FONSI/ROD - Correct answer-addresses circumstances relevant to the action Notice of Intent (NOI) - Correct answer-Airport Sponsor files with the FAA when an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS) is necessary Environmental Impact Statement - Correct answer-identifies affects proposed project may have, environmental impacts, impacts alternatives may cause, makes mitigation suggestions. Few projects require an EIS Environmental Audit - Correct answer-recommended method for Airport Sponsor to determine environmental liabilities and issues. Sets a "good faith" effort. Airport Sponsor is also responsible for tenants actions past and present Environmental Management Systems (EMS) - Correct answer-business management practice that serves as a strategic plan for addressing environmental matters 5 components of Environmental Management System - Correct answer-1. Management review
- commitment and Environmental policy
- Planning
- Checking
- Implementation and Operation Nonattainment areas - Correct answer-do not meet federal air quality standards (25% of US airports are in nonattainment areas) State Implementation Plans (SIP) - Correct answer-inventory of all airport emission sources
Voluntary Airport Low Emmissions (VALE) program - Correct answer-participating airports can receive credits for emission reductions and use credits to offset emissions from projects to comply with the Clean Air Act Storm water discharge - Correct answer-largest source of water pollution at an airport National Pollution Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) - Correct answer-EPA permitting program regulates discharges of potentially contaminated wastewater and storm water (ie. dicing fluid) Storm Water Pollution Prevention Plan (SWPPP) - Correct answer-part of NPDES permit process. Requires airport monitoring of all discharges, maintain records and report unusual discharges Non-point Source (NPS) pollution - Correct answer-land runoff, precipitation into a body of water rather than from a specific source-often agricultural 4 Types of storm water permits - Correct answer-1. General
- individual
- multi-sector general
- construction Emergency Response Plan (ERP) - Correct answer-methods for contacting emergency response personnel and methods for containing the waste Spill Prevention, Control and Countermeasures (SPCC) Plan - Correct answer-reduce or eliminate discharges into navigable waters, identifies points of contact in the event of a spill, describes facilities where pollutants are, training of personnel, response and reporting Hazardous Waste - Correct answer-list contained in CFR Title 40 CFR 261 also if:
- ignitability-easily combustible
- corrosiveness-burns skin or dissolves metal
- reactivity-rapud or violent chemical reaction with water or other material
- toxicity-high concentration of heavy metals or pesticides Hazardous Waste Generators Classifications - Correct answer-1. Conditionally Exempt Small Quantity Generators (<100kg/mo.)
- Small Quantity Generators (100kg but less than 1,000kg/mo)
- Large Quantity Generators (over 1,000kg/mo) all hazardous waste per month from an airport is totaled if more than 100kg/mo an EPA number must be obtained Superfine Hazardous Substances - Correct answer-toxic, corrosive, environmentally harmful
National Airspace System (NAS) - Correct answer-total of all airports, nav aids, ATC and airspace within the US 2 Categories of airspace - Correct answer-1. regulatory
- non- regulatory Regulatory airspace - Correct answer-A, B, C, D, E, Restricted and Prohibited areas Non-regulatory - Correct answer-Military Operations Areas (MOAs), warning areas, alert areas and controlled firing areas 4 Types of Airspace - Correct answer-1. Controlled
- Uncontrolled
- Special use
- Other Terminal airspace - Correct answer-area around nations largest airports. From ground to designated altitude, sixty mile diameter, can include multiple airports Class A Airspace - Correct answer-above 18,000' MSL to FL 600 (60,000') must be on IFR flight plan Class B Airspace - Correct answer-surface to 10,000' MSL around nations busiest airports, upside down wedding cake shape, must have ATC clearance to operate in Class C Airspace - Correct answer-surface to 4,000' AGL, airports with a tower and radar approach,5NM radius core up to 4,000' AGL, 10NM shelf up to no lower than 1,200' up to 4,000' AGL, radio communication must be established with ATC Class D Airspace - Correct answer-surface to 2,500' AGL with a tower Class E Airspace - Correct answer-controlled areas (federal airways), provides separation for VFR & IFR, at airports with instrument approach but no tower Class G Airspace - Correct answer-all other uncontrolled airspace, surface to base of overlaying Class B airspace or 14,000MSL Transition Area - Correct answer-extends out from Class B and Class C airspace allow for IFR climbs and descents Continental Control Area - Correct answer-airspace above 14,500' over the contiguous 48 states Special Use Airspace - Correct answer-designated for certain activities ie. prohibited, restricted, .....
Prohibited Areas - Correct answer-flight is prohibited for national security Restricted Areas - Correct answer-used for visible hazards to aircraft. IFR can transition hut VFR need to ensure it is not active Warning Area - Correct answer-over international waters, extend from 3 miles beyond shore Military Operations Areas (MOAs) - Correct answer-separate high-speed military aircraft from GA, pilots may request traffic advisories before entering Military Training Routes (MTRs) - Correct answer-high speed one-way routes for military aircraft. Pilots need to keep alert for military aircraft Alert Areas - Correct answer-unusual activity is taking place ie. high density of rotor aircraft training Control Firing Areas (CFAs) - Correct answer-activities that can be hazardous to non- participating aircraft, activities stop when aircraft is spotted National Security Areas - Correct answer-locations where increased security and safety of facilities is necessary Air Defense Identification Zones (ADIZ) - Correct answer-around borders of US and over Washington DC, all entering aircraft must provide identification prior to entry Flight Restriction Zone (FRZ) - Correct answer-over Capitol, White House and surrounding areas, IFR only Airport Advisory Area - Correct answer-at airport without control tower but may have an on- field FSS. FSS provides aircraft advisories Parachute Jump Area - Correct answer-where parachutw activities occur. pilots should remain clear or monitor frequency Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) - Correct answer-temporary closure of an airspace ie. over President or Super Bowl Published VFR Routes - Correct answer-transitioning under or around complex airspace aka VFR corridors Terminal Radar Service Areas (TRSA) - Correct answer-areas where participating pilots can receive additional radar service typically over Class D airspace
- Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)-initial route of flight
