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AMCB Certified Nurse Midwife Board Review 2025 LATEST Practice Questions and Answers 350 Q, Exams of Nursing

East Carolina University (ECU)Nursing

AMCB Certified Nurse Midwife Board Review 2025 LATEST Practice Questions and Answers with Detailed Explanations 350+ QUESTIONS

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2024/2025

Available from 02/04/2025

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AMCB Certified Nurse Midwife Board Review
2025 LATEST Practice Questions and Answers
with Detailed Explanations 350+ QUESTIONS
A child born to a woman over the age of 35 has an increased risk of:
1. Trisomy 21
2. Cleft palate
3. Cystic fibrosis
4. Meningomyelocele
1. Trisomy 21
Which of the following is the best recommendation for a woman with
morning sickness?
1. Nothing will really alleviate it; council her to accept it
2. Eat a dry carbohydrate, such as crackers, before getting out of bed
3. Drink large quantities of fluids with meals, especially water
4. Eat three meals a day and avoid eating between meals
2. Eat a dry carbohydrate, such as crackers, before getting out of bed
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Download AMCB Certified Nurse Midwife Board Review 2025 LATEST Practice Questions and Answers 350 Q and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

AMCB Certified Nurse Midwife Board Review

2025 LATEST Practice Questions and Answers

with Detailed Explanations 350+ QUESTIONS

A child born to a woman over the age of 35 has an increased risk of:

  1. Trisomy 21
  2. Cleft palate
  3. Cystic fibrosis
  4. Meningomyelocele
  5. Trisomy 21 Which of the following is the best recommendation for a woman with morning sickness?
  6. Nothing will really alleviate it; council her to accept it
  7. Eat a dry carbohydrate, such as crackers, before getting out of bed
  8. Drink large quantities of fluids with meals, especially water
  9. Eat three meals a day and avoid eating between meals
  10. Eat a dry carbohydrate, such as crackers, before getting out of bed

The definition of pica is:

  1. The craving for nonfood, non-nutritive substances such as ice, clay, dirt, starch, or plaster
  2. The vitamin deficiency that leads to excess itching
  3. A cultural definition of suppressed appetite caused by pregnancy nausea
  4. The body's reaction to vitamin C deficiency that causes sores all over the body
  5. The craving for nonfood, non-nutritive substances such as ice, clay, dirt, starch, or plaster Which of the common discomforts of pregnancy generally have their initial onset during the first trimester of pregnancy?
  6. Backache
  7. Dyspnea
  8. Fatigue
  9. Varicose veins
  10. Fatigue
  1. Retained placenta
  2. Abruptio placenta Thrush in the newborn is directly related to contact in the birth canal with which of the following organisms?
  3. Candida albicans
  4. Neisseria gonorrhea
  5. Treponema pallidum
  6. Staphylococcus aureus
  7. Candida albicans To protect her unborn child from toxoplasmosis, a pregnant woman should:
  8. Avoid people known to have German Measles
  9. Avoid eating inadequately cooked meat
  10. Avoid sexual relations with known carriers
  11. Be vaccinated against it in early pregnancy
  12. Avoid eating inadequately cooked meat

An example of a sex chromosome abnormality is:

  1. Down's Syndrome
  2. Tay-Sack's disease
  3. Trisomy 13
  4. Turner Syndrome
  5. Turner Syndrome A typical gynaecoid pelvis has which of the following characteristics?
  6. Rounded inlet. non-prominenant ischial spines and wide, round pubic arch
  7. Heart-shaped inlet, prominent ischial spines, and a narrow, deep pubic arch
  8. Oval outlet, prominent or non-prominent ischial spines, and normal pubic arch
  9. Flattened at the inlet, prominent ischial spines and sacrum, and a wide pubic arch
  10. Rounded inlet. non-prominenant ischial spines and wide, round pubic arch A cephalic presentation includes all of the following, except:
  11. Brow

Constipation during pregnancy is usually the result of:

  1. Prolonged stomach emptying times and decreased intestinal motility
  2. Increased peristalsis and flatulence
  3. Increased cardiac workload, resulting in delayed peristalsis
  4. Reflux of acidic gastric contents
  5. Prolonged stomach emptying times and decreased intestinal motility Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy:
  6. Positive pregnancy test
  7. Enlargement of abdomen and fetal movement
  8. Amenorrhea
  9. Ultrasound
  10. Ultrasound e midwife has been helping answer the questions of a woman who has just given birth for the first time. Which behavior shows that the new mother understands correct teaching on breastfeeding?
  11. Breastfeeding every four hours
  12. Allowing the baby to breastfeed for only three to five minutes from each breast
  13. Every two to three hours or on demand, whichever comes first
  1. Supplementing her breastfeeding with glucose water in the first three days
  2. Every two to three hours or on demand, whichever comes first Counseling a woman interested in natural family planning, the midwife would inform her that the most effective method is:
  3. The calendar/rhythm method
  4. The basal body temperature method
  5. Diaphragm/withdrawal method
  6. The sympto-thermal method
  7. The sympto-thermal method The midwife is performing Leopold's maneuver and determines that the fetus is ROA. Which of the following did she find?
  8. Round, firm object low in the pelvis, small parts on the mother's right side, and a soft rounded shape and the fundus.
  9. Round, firm object low in the pelvis, small parts on the mother's left side, and a soft rounded shape in the fundus
  10. Soft rounded shape on the mother's right side, firm rounded shape on the mother's left side, and small parts at the level of the umbilicus
  11. Soft rounded shape in the lower pelvis, small parts on the mother's side, and a firm, round object in the fundus

While performing a vaginal exam, the midwife determines that the fetus is in a cephalic presentation and that the occiput has reached the level of the ischial spines. The station is:

    • 2
    • 1
  3. 0
  5. 0 A laboring woman's membranes ruptured at the end of a contraction. The midwives first action would be to:
  6. Assess FHT
  7. Change the bed so she will be comfortable
  8. Instruct the woman to push
  9. Perform a vaginal exam
  10. Assess FHT Which is the most descriptive of a cephalohematoma:
  11. A subcutaneous collection of edematous fluid on the infant's head
  12. Blood vessels between the cranial bone and the periosteal layer rupture, leading to bleeding in the subperiosteal space
  1. It typically disappears within 24 hours of birth
  2. Traction and rupture of paravaginal veins by the oncoming presenting part
  3. Blood vessels between the cranial bone and the periosteal layer rupture, leading to bleeding in the subperiosteal space Signs and symptoms of a patient with precipitous labor may include all the following, except:
  4. Contraction every 2 minutes, lasting 90 seconds
  5. Rapid progressive cervical dilation
  6. Prolonged transition stage
  7. Discomfort that seems out of proportion to the dilation.
  8. Prolonged transition stage During pelvimetry, a primigravida is found to have a diagonal conjugate of 10cm, based on this information, the midwife would expect her labor to be:
  9. Within normal length of time for a primigravida
  10. Prolonged, with slow fetal descent after +2 station
  11. Prolonged, with failure of the head to engage
  12. In the first stage with prolonged pushing and the second stage
  13. Prolonged, with failure of the head to engage

The normal breathing pattern for a full-term baby is predominantly:

  1. Chest breathing with nasal flaring
  2. Abdominal with synchronous chest movements
  3. Diaphragmatic with chest lag
  4. Shallow and irregular respirations
  5. Abdominal with synchronous chest movements The average heartbeat range for a full-term, quiet, and awake newborn is:
  6. 80-100bpm
  7. 100-120bpm
  8. 120-140bpm
  9. 150-180bpm
  10. 120-140bpm Vitamin K is administered in the immediate neonate period because:
  11. A newborn's liver is incapable of producing sufficient vitamin K to deal with transient neonatal coagulation problems
  12. Hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells increases coagulation problems
  13. Newborns are susceptible to changes in temperature, which increase jaundice
  1. Newborns lack the intestinal bacteria with which to synthesize vitamin K
  2. Newborns lack the intestinal bacteria with which to synthesize vitamin K The midwife sees a 2-hour-old newborn gagging and turning blue. The first thing the midwife should do is:
  3. Try to get him breastfeeding
  4. Aspirate the oral and nasal pharynx with a bulb syringe
  5. Give oxygen by positive pressure ventilation
  6. Raise the infant's head and stimulate crying by slapping the soles of the feet
  7. Aspirate the oral and nasal pharynx with a bulb syringe The blue coloration of the newborn's hands and feet is called:
  8. Vernix caseosa
  9. Acrocyanosis
  10. Harlequin color
  11. Erythema neonatorum
  12. Acrocyanosis
  1. Soft, weak cry
  2. Jitteriness Hemolytic disease of the neonate may be produced by the union of:
  3. Rh- mother with a Rh- father
  4. Rh- mother with a Rh+ father
  5. Rh+ mother with Rh- father
  6. Type B mother with type 0 father
  7. Rh- mother with a Rh+ father A positive direct Coombs test done on the cord blood indicates the presence of:
  8. Antibodies coating the baby's red blood cells
  9. Antigens coating the mother's red blood cells
  10. Fetal red blood cells in the maternal serum
  11. Maternal red blood cells in the fetal circulation
  12. Antibodies coating the baby's red blood cells On the first day postpartum, the fundus should be:
  1. At the level of the symphysis pubis
  2. At the level of the umbilicus
  3. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis
  4. 2 finger breadths below the umbilicus
  5. At the level of the umbilicus Uterine involution occurs as a result of:
  6. A decrease in the number of myometrial cells
  7. Necrosis of the hypertrophic myometrial cells
  8. Autolysis of protein material within the uterine wall
  9. Necrotic degeneration of the placental site
  10. Autolysis of protein material within the uterine wall 12 hours postpartum, the midwife checks the mother's fundus and finds it enlarged and boggy. What would the midwife do first?
  11. Take her vital signs to rule out hypertension so she can give methergine
  12. Check the consistency of the fundus at 15-minute intervals and chart this information
  13. Administer an oxytocic drug
  14. Massage the uterus firmly with one hand while supporting it with the other hand

A postpartum patient reports she feels very uncomfortable sitting and has a "full feeling down there". The midwife should suspect:

  1. Cystitis
  2. A suture may have come undone
  3. Postpartum infarction
  4. Vulvarhematoma
  5. Vulvarhematoma The clinical manifestations of mastitis include:
  6. Hard, warm nodular areas in the out quadrant of the breast
  7. Cessation or diminishing of milk production
  8. Marked engorgement and pain
  9. Soft, pliable breasts with a bluish-tinged line running up the breast
  10. Hard, warm nodular areas in the out quadrant of the breast A woman who has given birth to three children is a :
  11. Primipara
  12. Segunda
  13. Multipara
  1. Puerperal
  2. Multipara The first indication of puerperal infection is usually:
  3. Excessive bleeding
  4. Chills with an elevated temperature
  5. Vomiting and nausea
  6. Severe abdominal pain
  7. Chills with an elevated temperature The types of pelvis may be classified into any of the following, expect:
  8. Gynecoid
  9. Ovoid
  10. Android
  11. Antrhodpoid
  12. Ovoid The laceration which includes the anal sphincter but does not completely split the sphincter is called a: