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AMLS Post-Test Practice Questions and Answers: A Comprehensive Review for Paramedics, Exams of Nursing

Xavier UniversityNursing

A valuable set of practice questions and answers for the advanced medical life support (amls) post-test. it covers a wide range of topics in emergency medicine, including respiratory compromise, shock, metabolic disorders, and toxicology. the questions are well-elaborated and provide detailed explanations, making it an excellent resource for paramedics and other healthcare professionals preparing for the amls exam or seeking to enhance their knowledge of emergency medical care. The questions cover various scenarios and clinical presentations, allowing for a thorough review of key concepts and principles.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 05/08/2025

CESSLYN
CESSLYN 🇺🇸

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AMLS Post Test Practice Questions with Well
Elaborated Answers Guaranteed Pass Already
A Graded-Xavier University
1. Your patient has had a seizure secondary to a nerve agent exposure. What
medication would be best to diminish the seizure?
c. Midazolam
2. Respiratory alkalosis may occur as a result of:
a. Fever and anxiety
3. An age-related change that increases the risk of respiratory compromise is:
c. Decrease in lung compliance
4. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is most common in patients with a history of:
a. Left-sided heart failure (?)
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Download AMLS Post-Test Practice Questions and Answers: A Comprehensive Review for Paramedics and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

AMLS Post Test Practice Questions with Well

Elaborated Answers Guaranteed Pass Already

A Graded-Xavier University

  1. Your patient has had a seizure secondary to a nerve agent exposure. What medication would be best to diminish the seizure? c. Midazolam
  2. Respiratory alkalosis may occur as a result of: a. Fever and anxiety
  3. An age-related change that increases the risk of respiratory compromise is: c. Decrease in lung compliance
  4. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is most common in patients with a history of: a. Left-sided heart failure (?)
  1. The patient presents with a history of fever and an upper respiratory infection. Historical information reveals increasing water intake, orthostatic hypotension, and an increase in urination. You suspect these symptoms are caused by: a. Hyperglycemia
  2. You are dispatched to the home of a 32yo patient with a history of Graves' disease. The patient was in the ER earlier today for some "tests for my ulcers." He received contrast and was discharged. He is now complaining of not feeling well, chest pain, and palpitations. You note an anxious patient with fine tremors. He is diaphoretic and has a temperature of 101.5F, BP 100/62, P 156 (sinus tach), R 30, glucose level 133. Which of the following are management considerations for this patient? d. Beta Blockers
  3. Metabolic acidosis is best described by which arterial blood gas interpretation? b. pH decreased, pCO2 decreased, H2CO3 low (?)
  4. The AMLS Assessment Pathway first advises safety and initial observations of the scene. The second process described in this pathway asks the healthcare provider to: c. Identify and manage life threats
  5. Observing a patient's body positioning can be an early indicator that the patient is: a. Sick or not sick

1 4. What clinical findings are most commonly associated with a pulmonary embolus? a. Clear breath sounds with tachypnea 1 5. What condition is most likely to cause respiratory acidosis? b. Narcotic overdose 1 6. A 55-year-old complains of an 'aching' chest discomfort that persists over several days. The patient has a temperature of 101F (38.3C). Which finding will help narrow the diagnosis to pericarditis? d. ST-segment elevation in all leads 1 7. Anaphylaxis is most associated with which physiological event? b. Vasodilation 1 8. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by what pathological change? c. Breakdown of the alveolar-capillary membrane

1 9. Continuous positive airway pressure would be most beneficial in treating which patient? b. A 22yo with severe asthma who is not responding to nebulizer treatments 2 0. What is the initial treatment for a patient experiencing hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC)? a. Crystalloid IV fluid administration

  1. A 62yo patient presents with a severe headache. It is described as a "thunderclap" accompanied with nausea, blurred vision, and an elevated blood pressure. What neurologic condition is most likely the cause of this patient's presentation? d. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  2. A 38yo presents with mild chest tightness and urticaria after mowing the lawn. He felt a "sting" in his left lower leg and states the symptoms came on suddenly. BP 130/82, P 100, R 20 with a normal work of breathing and clear lung sounds. The healthcare provider should: b. Initiate an IV with 0.09% NS and monitor the patient carefully
  3. Healthcare providers are treating a patient complaining of substernal chest pain accompanied with nausea and one episode of vomiting. The patient has had two cardiac stents placed within the last year. He has a familial history of heart disease and takes a baby aspirin daily. What information is most concerning?
  1. While assessing your patient, you note he involuntary flexes the legs in response to flexing his neck. The patient is presenting with: b. A positive Brudzinski's sign indicating possible meningitis
  2. Healthcare providers are assessing an obese 49yo who is lethargic and has not been feeling well for several days. His family reports a history of extreme thirst. Vital sings are P 143, R 14, and BP 88/58. He takes medication for type 2 diabetes daily. What is the most probably working diagnosis? d. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma
  3. A firefighter has been working a fire for 4 hours on a humid, hot day. He suddenly becomes nauseated and restless. The provider observes pupil dilation and an almond odor to his breath. The vital signs are P 56, R 22, BP 140/86. The ECG reveals sinus bradycardia with occasional PACs. Which toxin exposure has occurred? d. Cyanide poisoning
  4. Healthcare providers are treating a patient that has taken an unknown amount of a prescribed pain medicine along with an OTC analgesic numerous times over the last 36 hours for chronic lumbar pain. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. The providers note pallor and diaphoresis. Blood glucose is 42. What toxin overdose is suspected? b. Acetaminophen
  1. A patient complains of nausea and is passing black, tarry stools rectally. This patient is most likely suffering from: c. Upper GI bleed
  2. The provider assesses a patient suffering from fever, nausea, vomiting, and per- umbilical pain. Further evaluation reveals RLQ pain and lower back pain. A physical exam reveals an increase in RLQ pain when the patient's right leg is extended from the hip (Psoas Sign). Which working diagnosis is most appropriate? d. Appendicitis
  3. Intra-abdominal bleeds, like pancreatitis, often present with discoloration or bruising around the umbilicus. This physical exam finding is known as: a. Cullen's sign
  4. Which of the following is a hallmark sign of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity? a. Dysrhythmias
  5. A daughter states that her 72yo mother has a history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and rheumatoid arthritis. Daily medications include aspirin, Tenormin, Plaquenil, and Plavix. She is concerned as her mother has mixed up her medications and is now lethargic with diminished respirations. Vital signs are P 58 and regular, R 10 and shallow, and a BP of 90/74. Blood glucose is 52. Which medication toxicity would be indicative of this presentation?
  1. A patient complaining of a 3-day history of left lower abdominal pain describes it as sharp and, during the focused physical exam, the pain intensifies during palpation over the site. Differentials should include: a. Ectopic pregnancy or diverticulitis
  2. A 22yo male has recently undergone a surgical procedure to repair an injury to thoracic vertebrae T4-T6. Assessment indicates the patient is alert and oriented, bradycardic, hypotensive, and has warm, dry skin. Which type of shock is most likely occurring? d. Neurogenic
  3. A caregiver for a quadriplegic patient notes an onset of difficulty in breathing and anxiousness in her patient. Further assessment shows a temperature of 1011.2F, P 128, BP 86/68, and R 24. Physical exam reveals the skin is warm and urine in the catheter is dark yellow and cloudy. This patient is most likely experiencing which type of shock? b. Septic
  4. When assessing geriatric patients, infectious diseases are more difficult to identify for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: d. Heightened immune response is common
  1. A local business woman has returned from missionary work in South Africa. She is complaining of night sweats, chest discomfort, and a persistent cough for several weeks. Which underlying diagnosis is most likely causing these symptoms? c. Tuberculosis
  2. Healthcare providers are responding to a near-drowning at a local lake. The patient is experiencing uncontrolled shivering and complains of nausea and weakness. The patient had been treading water for 25 minutes and now presents with tachycardia and rapid respirations. Core body temperature is 93.2F (34C). Which diagnosis is most likely? a. Mild hypothermia
  3. An elderly patient is receiving nursing care at a home while recuperating from a recent knee surgery. A post-operative infection developed, and the patient has been on antibiotics for quite some time. She is complaining of a foul-smelling diarrhea, and abdominal cramping and loss of appetite. On the basis of this presentation, the provider should suspect: b. Clostridium difficile
  4. A 20yo female presents with a 2-day history of dyspnea, nonproductive cough, chest tightness, and audible wheezing. Further exam reveals no fever or stridor. The patient has rapid respirations with difficulty exhaling. Which diagnosis is most likely? c. Asthma