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Amt Mlt Exam Study Guide/Practice Test
#2 Exam 2025/2026 Real Solved 201
Questions With Fully Explained Detailed
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Chain of custody.
Beginning with the moment the specimen is collected and transported to the laboratory, to the analysis itself and the reporting of the results, must be documented by a process known as
Quality control
A process that monitors the accuracy and reproducibility of results through the use of control specimens.
Accuracy
Describes how close a test result is to the true value.
Calibration
The comparison of an instrument measurement or reading to a known physical constant.
Category C
What category of bioterrorism agents has the following characteristics?
These agents have the third-highest priority and include emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future because of availability, ease of production and dissemination?
Category A.
Agents anthrax, botulism, plague, smallpox, tularemia, filoviruses, and arenaviruses are classified as
Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens
What regulation that became law in 1992, requires that laboratories develop, implement, and comply with a plan that ensures the protective safety of laboratory staff to potential infectious blood-borne pathogens and manage and handle medical waste in a safe and effective manner?
Electric equipment.
Class C fire extinguishers are used for
Category B.
Agents brucellosis, epsilon toxin, food contaminants, glanders, melioidosis, psittacosis, Q fever, and ricin toxin are classified as
Safety Data Sheets
Celsius plus 273
How do you convert Celsius to Kelvin?
RBC
In the calculation of MCV = HCT x 10/___?
40X objective
The objective that should never have oil used on it is the
Flourescent.
The microscope commonly used in cellular biology that has the ability to distinguish between living and dead cells and monitor activity within living cells is the
Kohler illumination.
The most common method of illuminating specimens on a microscope is
a hematoma.
Failure to apply sufficient pressure to the venipuncture site could result in
Blood gases, slides/smear, EDTA tubes, other additive minicontainers, and serum containers
Order of draw for capillary specimens:
contact, airborne, and droplet.
Transmission-based precautions are divided into three basic categories:
Lipemic specimens
What is milky-white in color and may interfere with chemical determinations such as triglyceride assay?
cephalic, basilic and median cubital.
The three veins that are typically used for venipuncture are the
intravenous lines, edema, scarring or burn patients, dialysis patients, and mastectomy patients.
Five specific situations may result in a difficult venipuncture or may be the sources of preanalytical error. They are:
Ion-selective electrode (ISE) potentiometry
What uses a glass ion-exchange membrane for sodium assay and a valinomycin neutral-carrier membrane for potassium assay and has been incorporated into many automated chemistry analyzers?
AST
The reduction of oxaloacetate to malate by malate dehydrogenase is used in the measurement of which enzyme?
Jaundice
What is the yellow discoloration of the plasma, skin, and mucous membranes that is caused by the abnormal metabolism, accumulation, or retention of bilirubin called?
Porphyrins
What compound shows a strong absorbance near 400 nm and often displays a characteristic orange-red fluorescence?
Type 2
Non-insulin dependent diabetes, is characterized by insulin resistance and progressive hyperglycemia and is called "adult-onset diabetes" is
Acetoacetic acid
In fat catabolism (the phase of metabolism in which fats are broken down for energy), what is produced first?
Liver
Every function in the living cell depends on proteins. Most of the plasma proteins are synthesized in what organ?
Enzymatic Law
What is the most accurate answer for enzyme activity on a diluted 1:4 specimen with a 500 u value?
. LDH- 5
Due to LDH nonspecificity, it is best to separate into isoenzyme fractions. LDH can be separated into five major fractions. Disorders of skeletal muscle will show elevated levels of which LDH isoenzyme?
TnI
The patient presented at the clinic after returning from a fishing trip. Chief complaint is left-sided anterior chest pain that started 3 days ago. Patient states no injury. Which cardiac test would give the physician the best picture of diagnosis?
IU
What is the recommendation of the Enzyme Commission of the International Union of Biochemistry for reporting enzyme results?
Lipase
Which enzyme is used almost exclusively for the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
Lipase
A significant increase in the plasma concentrations of urea and creatinine, in kidney insufficiency, is known as
Magnesium
What is the fourth most abundant cation in the body and second most abundant intracellular ion? In addition, this electrolyte has high concentrations found in bone and muscle.
Aminoglycosides
Which type of antibiotic would you see tested only on inpatients because they are not well absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract?
Alpha-fetoprotein
Which tumor marker is an abundant serum protein and normally synthesized by the fetal liver?
pharmacokinetics.
The mathematics modeling of drug concentration in circulation which helps assist in establishing a dosage regimen is
Human chorionic gonadotropin
This marker is strongly suggestive of pregnancy or a malignant tumor such as endodermal sinus tumor, teratocarcinoma, choriocarcinoma, molar pregnancy, testicular embryonal carcinoma, or oat cell carcinoma of the lung.
Digoxin
Many cardiac conditions are treated with drugs, but only a few require TDM. The two classes of drugs that need monitoring are the cardiac glycosides and the antiarrhythmics. Which drug belongs to the glycosides?
CA 15- 3
The main purpose of this assay is to monitor breast cancer patients after mastectomy. It is positive in patients with other conditions, including liver disease, some inflammatory conditions, and other carcinomas.
Bilirubin
What is derived from the iron-containing heme portion of hemoglobin, which is released from the breakdown of RBCs?
C-reactive protein (CRP)
An inflammation sensitive protein that can be measured by immunoassays is
Immunosuppressive
Which class of drugs plays a role in determining the success of any transplant program?
Antiepileptic
Endogenous anaerobes are organisms
Gram positive
What is the term for bacteria that stain purple/blue as a result of retention of crystal violet-iodine complex?
one end of the bacterial cell, both ends of the bacterial cell, the entire cell surface.
Flagella are located on
Prokaryotes
What cells do not have a nucleus or any membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria, and their ribosomes are a smaller size than eukaryotic ribosomes?
Hemoglobinopathies.
Disorders in which the presence of structurally abnormal hemoglobin is considered to play an important role pathologically are called
Megaloblastic anemias
What macrocytic anemias are the results of vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency, or a combination of both?
Poikilocytosis.
Alteration in shape which include: spherocytes, schistocytes, sickle cells, drepanocytes, ovalocytes, and target cells is called
Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
This is one of the most useful procedures for distinguishing immune from nonimmune mechanisms that can underlie hemolytic anemias. What test is used to detect RBCs that have been coated with antibodies?
Evaluate the overall quality of the blood film, estimate the leukocyte count, and scan the blood film for abnormal cells and clumps of platelets.
Low power examination (10x objective) includes the following:
Decreased iron intake (either from inadequate diet or impaired absorption), increased iron loss (generally from chronic bleeding from a variety of causes), an error of iron metabolism (sideroblastic anemias), and/or increased iron requirements in infancy, pregnancy and lactation
In simplified terms, iron-deficiency anemia may result from the following:
Sudan black B (BBB)
Which cytochemical stain is used in differentiating the cell lineage of malignant cells in the bone marrow that stains phospholipids, neutral fats, and sterols?
Promyelocyte
Megakaryocytes
When performing a bone marrow differential count, which cell is not included?
Chorea and undulant fever
In the vast majority of infections, there is at least some increase in the ESR. What are two exceptions?
Westergren method
What has been selected as the method of choice by the Clinical Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) for measuring erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
What measures the rate of setting of erythrocytes in diluted human plasma?
Analyze serial dilutions of linearity check material multiple times to minimize effects of imprecision
The following procedure describes linearity determination for each direct measured parameter on a hematology analyzer.
Levey-Jennings chart
When a new lot number of controls are used with a hematology analyzer, the new control material must be tested and plotted to establish the mean and the control limits. How is this plotted?
Impedance
Which automated blood cell counting principle is based on increased resistance that occurs when a blood cell with poor conductivity passes through an electrical field?
Microcytic erythrocytes
When evaluating erythrocyte histogram, a shift to the left of the erythrocyte series should correspond to the following type of erythrocytes?
Plasma.
The total volume of blood in an average adult is about 6 L, or 7% to 8% of the body weight. About 45% of this amount is composed of red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leukocytes), and platelets (thrombocytes); the remaining 55% is the liquid fraction
New methylene blue
Using this stain helps precipitate residual ribosomal RNA within reticulocytes.
Plasma (top layer), buffy coat (grayish white cellular layer composed of white blood cells and platelets), red blood cells (bottom layer).
When a preserved blood specimen is allowed to stand for a time, the components will settle into the following three distinct layers:
Platelet count, platelet aggregation assays, platelet adhesion, and clot retraction
Particle agglutination is used for detecting D-dimers associated with
rothrombin group
What measures factors II, VII, IX, and X?
Secondary hemostasis
What results in the formation of a blood clot because coagulation factors present in the blood interact, forming a fibrin network and a thrombus, to stop the bleeding completely? Slow lysis of the thrombus begins, and final repair to site of the injury takes place.
Plasmin.
The active enzyme that is responsible for digesting fibrin or fibrinogen is
Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
What provides an alternative to immunofluorescent assays and uses nonisotopic label, which offers the advantage of safety and demonstrates specificity, sensitivity, and rapidity? This method is popular for waived, over the counter testing.
Heterophil antibodies
What are defined as antibodies that are stimulated by one antigen and react with an entirely unrelated surface antigen present on cells from different mammalian species?
Solid-phase immunosorbent assay (SPIA).
If the antibody directed toward the agent being assayed is fixed firmly to a solid matrix, either to the outside of a spherical plastic or metal bead or some other solid matrix, the system is called
Southern blot
What molecular technique can determine single-base mutations that include sickle cell anemia and hemophilia A?
Rapid plasma regain (RPR)
What is the widely used nontreponemal serological test?
. Direct immunofluorescent assay
What is the technique that uses a conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions that can be seen with a fluorescent microscope?
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) agglutination test
What is based on the reaction between patient antibodies in the serum, known as the rheumatoid factor (RF), and an antigen derived from human gamma globulin (IgG)?
Agglutination
What is the term applied to aggregation of particulate test antigens?
