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AMT MT Study Guide Questions and
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The three major phases of laboratory testing that a QA program should evaluate include
a. mean, standard deviation, and coefficient of variation. b. pre-op, operative, and post-op. c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
d. outpatient, inpatient, and non-patient. ✔✔c. pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
The process by which test results achieve the same high levels of accuracy and precision that can be reproduced across measurement systems, laboratories and time is referred to as
a. laboratory process control. b. laboratory calibration. c. laboratory standardization.
d. laboratory verification. ✔✔c. laboratory standardization.
What characteristics/functions do calibrators have?
a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested. b. They monitor the quality of reagents. c. They monitor the quality of the sample.
d. They prevent equipment failure. ✔✔a. They contain a known amount of analyte being tested.
An abrupt demonstrated change in the mean is a
a. shift. b. trend. c. variance. d. deviation. ✔✔a. shift.
Qualitative examinations are those that
a. qualify for waived testing. b. produce non-numerical results. c. do not require quality control.
d. do not require proficiency testing. ✔✔b. produce non-numerical results.
A property of a test that is used to describe its quality (such as accuracy, precision, sensitivity, etc.) is a
a. performance characteristic. b. performance enhancement. c. performance verification.
d. performance specification. ✔✔a. performance characteristic
d. provider performed microscopy. ✔✔d. provider performed microscopy.
Policies and procedures that are intended to promote the quality and validity of test data and ensure the reliability and integrity of data generated by analytical laboratories is known as
a. CLIA Law. b. Quality Assurance Plan (QAP). c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
d. Total Quality Management (TQM). ✔✔c. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP).
Devices based on electrophoretic principles are used in the clinical laboratory to perform all of the following except to
a. measure quantities of various proteins in plasma, urine, and CSF. b. separate enzymes into their component isoenzymes. c. identify antibodies. d. measure molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum. ✔✔d. measure
molecules in a characteristic spectrum called the emission spectrum.
The chemistry methodology that is based on the fact that substances of clinical interest selectively absorb or emit electromagnetic energy at different wavelengths is
a. flourometry.
b. atomic absorption. c. spectrophotometry.
d. photometry. ✔✔c. spectrophotometry.
Given %T, how is absorbance calculated?
a. log %T - 2. b. log %T + 2. c. 2 + log %T.
d. 2 - log %T. ✔✔d. 2 - log %T.
Prohibiting recapping of needles is an example of
a. a workplace control. b. an engineering control. c. a best practice in the workplace. d. a human resources requirement. ✔✔a. a workplace control.
The majority of all centrifuge accidents result from
a. electrical malfunctions. b. faulty mechanisms. c. user error.
1.10 * 0.185 = 0.2035 g/mL 0.2035 g/mL * 1000 = 203.5 g/L Molarity = (g/L) / molecular weight (MW) 203.5 / 36.5 = 5.6 M
MCV = HCT * 10/(?)
a. MCHC b. MCV c. RBC d. MCH ✔✔c. RBC
A substage lens of the microscope that focuses light on the slide specimen is the
a. condenser. b. aperture. c. C-mount.
d. diaphragm. ✔✔a. condenser.
The magnification of a microscope is determined by the
a. high power objective multiplied by the low power objective.
b. thickness of the condenser. c. powers of the eyepiece and objective.
d. fine focus adjustment. ✔✔c. powers of the eyepiece and objective.
You have just completed morning rounds when you realize that you have an unlabeled tube in your tray. You are certain you know what patient the tube belongs to. How should you proceed?
a. After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen. b. After sorting the tubes, you see what specimen is missing so label your unlabeled tube with that patient's information. c. Discard the tube and hope know one realizes there is a missing specimen. d. Discard all your tubes and redraw everyone to make sure all the specimens are correct. ✔✔a.
After sorting the tubes you see what specimen is missing, discard the unlabeled tube and go recollect the specimen.
You are working in receiving and receive urine specimens with the following labels. Select the label that contains the required labeling elements for a primary specimen.
a. Name: Jane Deer
DOB: 3-6-3
Room #: 123
Collect time/date: 0550 7/6/ b. Name: Deer, JR
DOB: 3/6/2003
Location: clinic
Collect time/date: 0550 7/6/ c. Name: Deer, Jane Ray
DOB: 3/6/2003
Hospital number: 234345
Collect time/date: 0550 7/6/
d. Within five hours of collection ✔✔b. Within two hours of collection
Which of the following actions is appropriate when a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is delivered to the laboratory's specimen processing area?
a. Refrigerate the specimens immediately. b. Deliver the specimens to the testing area along with routine specimens when it is convenient. c. Deliver the specimens immediately to the appropriate testing areas.
d. Incubate the specimen until routine testing can take place. ✔✔c. Deliver the specimens
immediately to the appropriate testing areas.
Which of the following characterizes reversed-phase liquid-liquid chromatography?
a. Mobile phase is nonpolar relative to the polar stationary phase b. Mobile and stationary phases are nonpolar c. Mobile and stationary phases are polar d. Mobile phase is polar relative to the nonpolar stationary phase ✔✔d. Mobile phase is polar
relative to the nonpolar stationary phase
The measurement of the decrease in intensity of an incident light beam as it passes through a solution of particles defines which of the following methods?
a. Turbidimetry
b. Nephelometry c. Chemiluminescence
d. Bioluminescence ✔✔a. Turbidimetry
Which of the following labels is used in the detection of electrochemiluminescence?
a. Acridinium esters b. Dioxetane c. Tritium
d. Ruthenium III ✔✔d. Ruthenium III
POCT devices use a variety of analytical principles such as reflectance, spectrophotometry, fluorescence, and ________.
a. ESI b. IFE c. RIA
d. PCR ✔✔d. PCR
The amount of wavelength isolation is a function of the monochromator type and of which of the following?
a. Width of entrance and exit slits
c. Directly proportional d. Exactly equal ✔✔c. Directly proportional
A high-protein diet may cause a
a. prerenal plasma urea increase. b. postrenal plasma urea increase. c. prerenal plasma urea decrease.
d. postrenal plasma urea decrease. ✔✔a. prerenal plasma urea increase.
Catabolism of which of the following results in the formation of uric acid?
a. Proteins b. Pyrimidines c. Porphyries
d. Purines ✔✔d. Purines
Jendrassik-Grof or Evelyn-Malloy are the most commonly used methods to measure
a. Fructose b. Bilirubin c. Urea
d. Cholesterol ✔✔b. Bilirubin
The reference range of urobilinogen is
a. 0.1-1.0 mg/dL every 2 hours. b. 0.1-1.0 μmol/L every 2 hours. c. 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours. d. 0.1-1.0 Babson units every 2 hours. ✔✔c. 0.1-1.0 Ehrlich units every 2 hours.
Which is used as the indicator enzyme in the measurement of ALT?
a. LD b. AST c. ALP
d. CK ✔✔a. LD
Which of the following is the formation of glucose-6-phosphate from sources other than carbohydrates?
a. Gluconeogenesis b. Glycolysis c. Glycogenolysis d. Glycogenesis ✔✔a. Gluconeogenesis
a. Holoenzyme b. Zymogen c. Apoenzyme
d. Isoenzyme ✔✔c. Apoenzyme
AST is classified as a(an)
a. oxidoreductase. b. transferase. c. hydrolase. d. isomerase. ✔✔b. transferase.
Elevations in ALP levels are seen in hepatobiliary and which other disorders?
a. Kidney b. Lung c. Pancreas
d. Bone ✔✔d. Bone
Which enzyme catalyzes the interconversion of lactate and pyruvate?
a. PK b. LD
c. GP d. CK ✔✔b. LD
Anterior pituitary hormones include LH, FSH, TSH, GH, and
a. ACTH and cortisol. b. Inhibin and IGF-1. c. ACTH and prolactin.
d. E2 and T3. ✔✔c. ACTH and prolactin
Parathyroid glands increase or decrease PTH secretion in response to changes in levels of which of the following?
a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Chloride d. Calcium ✔✔d. Calcium
Growth hormone is an amphibolic hormone because it directly influences which processes?
a. Both anabolic and catabolic b. Only anabolic c. Only catabolic
Which of the following is the immediate precursor to angiotensin II?
a. Renin b. Angiotensinogen c. Angiotensin III d. Angiotensin I ✔✔d. Angiotensin I
Which of the following is the method of choice for confirmation testing following a positive opiate drug screening result?
a. AAS b. HPLC c. Immunoassay
d. GC-MS ✔✔d. GC-MS
Chronic exposure to organic mercury is cumulative because most of it is bound to which of the following?
a. Adipose tissue b. Neuronal proteins c. Renal tubules
d. Splenic tissue ✔✔b. Neuronal proteins
Formic acid formed by the metabolism of methanol is responsible for which of the following?
a. Liver cirrhosis b. Optic neuropathy c. Renal tubular damage d. Severe CNS symptoms ✔✔b. Optic neuropathy
Serum copper levels less than the reference interval and increased urinary levels describe which condition?
a. Wilson's disease b. Addison's disease c. Cushing's syndrome
d. Reye's syndrome ✔✔a. Wilson's disease
Which of the following is a functional test used to assess fetal lung maturity?
a. L/S ratio b. PG c. FSI d. Lamellar body counts ✔✔c. FSI
