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AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam), Exams of Nursing

AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam) AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)

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2024/2025

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AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM
Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full
Exam)
1.
There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that describes
secondary intention.
A.
The wound is approximated with no wound separation.
B.
The wound is cleaned, debriefed and packed.
C.
The wound is vascularized.
D.
Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation
Ans>> D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and
herniation
2.
An example of a simple drain is
Ans>> Penrose drain
3.
Which statement is an accurate description of negative pressure wound
therapy?
A.
Applies constant, positive wound pressure.
B.
Promotes wound contracture.
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AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM

Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full

Exam)

  1. There are three types of wound healing. Choose the option that describes secondary intention.

A. The wound is approximated with no wound separation.

B. The wound is cleaned, debriefed and packed.

C. The wound is vascularized.

D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation Ans>> D. Delayed healing may result in weak tissue approximation and herniation

  1. An example of a simple drain is Ans>> Penrose drain
  2. Which statement is an accurate description of negative pressure wound therapy?

A. Applies constant, positive wound pressure.

B. Promotes wound contracture.

C. Increases bacterial loads.

D. Encourages edema.

Ans>> B. Promotes wound contracture.

  1. Which description of an additional skin closure options is applicable to a zipper closure?

A. Limited to use on superficial wounds.

B. Easier to remove than sutures.

C. Distributes skin-stretching forces over a side surface area.

D. A stand alone skin approximation method or used in conjunction with a suture closure.

Ans>> C. Distributes skin-stretching forces over a side surface area.

  1. 1. Which option describes an interrupted suture?

A. A single stitch that is tied independently.

B. A suture that encircles the wound.

C. A heavy suture that reinforces the primary suture line.

D. A suture placed in an epidural layer.

Ans>> A. A single stitch that is tied independently.

  1. 1. Which statement about a patient who requires airborne precautions is TRUE?

B. Personnel working in restricted and semi-restricted areas should apply lip balm to avoid cracked lips.

C. Personnel should wash their hands with soap after direct contact with blood, bodily fluids or other potentially infectious materials.

D. Education on occupational exposure should be provided to healthcare personnel ever 2 years. Ans>> C. Personnel should wash their hands with soap after direct contact with blood, bodily fluids or other potentially infectious materials.

  1. Choose the option that describes the personal protective equipment (PPE) necessary for healthcare personnel transporting a patient that requires con- tact precautions

A. PPE is required for all team members for each patient transport.

B. PPE is not required for patient transport.

C. PPE is required for all team members when patient transport is necessary.

D. PPE is required for designated team member when direct contact is neces- sary. Ans>> B. PPE is not required for patient transport.

  1. 1. Choose the term that describes the amount of the virus that is found in the individual's blood.

A. Viral shedding.

B. Viral load.

C. Viral replication.

Viral transmission

Ans>> B. Viral load

  1. 1. Which element of the chain of infection describes a microorganism after exiting an infectious reservoir?

A. Mode of transmission.

B. Susceptible host.

C. Portal of entry.

D. Infectious agent.

Ans>> A. Mode of transmission

  1. 1. Which gowning and gloving action would a scrub nurse preform?

A. Changing gloves every 90-150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.

B. Drying arms and hands by waving them in the air.

C. Gloving after team members only when the hand is exposed and the sterile gown cuff is at the wrist.

D. Wearing double gloves that are extra loose to avoid numbness.

Ans>> A. Changing gloves every 90 - 150 minutes or after contact with bone cement.

  1. 1. Which barrier level gown would you choose if you anticipated high risk of exposure?

A. Level 1

B. Level 2

D. None of the above. Ans>> A. The count process

  1. Instruments are inspected at multiple points of use during the sterilization process. Which step is the preventative measure?

A. Point of use lubrication of a requested instrument.

B. Scheduled inspection of instrument sets.

C. Use of a cracked insulated instrument on an emergency surgery.

D. Use of a misaligned instrument for grasping tough tissue. Ans>> B. Scheduled inspection of instrument sets.

  1. 1. Which option describes a critical patient safety step that the scrub nurse takes prior to laparoscopic surgery?

A. Checks the surface of the insulated instruments for tears and cracks.

B. Identifies laparoscopic instruments by looking at the instrument tips.

C. Measure the width of laparoscopic instruments.

D. Determines the length of each trocar.

Ans>> A. Checks the surface of the insulated instruments for tears and cracks.

  1. 1. Which of the following options concerning minimally invasive surgery that is performed via a robot is NOT correct?

A. Robotic instruments are similar to laparoscopic instruments.

B. The robotic arms are part of the surgeon's consul.

C. The video cart contains equipment such as the camera monitor and light source.

D. The operating surgeon has control of the robotic instrument, camera and scope. Ans>> B. The robotic arms are part of the surgeon's consul.

  1. 1. A consideration that would NOT be considered in instrument assembly is

A. A patient population.

B. Type of surgery.

C. Tray weights.

D. Scheduling conflicts. Ans>> D. Scheduling conflicts.

  1. 1. Which of the following sterile towels is considered a drape?

A. Disposable cloth towels.

B. Reusable cloth towels.

C. Skin prep towel.

D. Impervious towel. Ans>> D. Impervious towel.

  1. 1. Before a central venous catheter insertion, the provider should

A. Use an area specific plastic drape.

B. Don a long sleeved jacket.

C. Don sterile gown and gloves.

B. Maintain a distance from the sterile field.

C. Cross arms and put their hands in their axilla to keep sterile.

D. Change position with another scrub person either face-to-face or back-to-back. Ans>> D. Change position with another scrub person either face-to-face or back- to-back.

  1. 1. A principle of covering or uncovering a sterile field includes

A. Covering multiple sterile fields to allow for quick turnovers.

B. Covering a portion of the sterile field until needed.

C. Covering a sterile field with one uncuffed drape.

D. Remove a cover by lifting drape from below the sterile field. Ans>> B. Covering a portion of the sterile field until needed.

  1. 1. A factor that would negatively affect the sterility of an instrument is

A. Regulated humidity and temperature.

B. Use of approved packaging materials.

C. Exposed to moisture.

D. Transported out of the surgical suite with a protective cover. Ans>> C. Exposed to moisture.

  1. 1. When opening a blue wrapped item, the nurse should

A. Inspect the wrap integrity for holes and tears.

B. Open the top flap toward their body.

C. Allow side flaps to hang loose.

D. Open the last flap toward the scrub person. Ans>> A. Inspect the wrap integrity for holes and tears.

  1. 1. Areas of the sterile gown that are considered sterile are

A. The neck to below the natural waist.

B. The chest to the level of the sterile field.

C. The shoulder to the proximal edge of the cuff.

D. 2 inches above the elbow to the distal edge of the cuff. Ans>> B. The chest to the level of the sterile field.

  1. 1. Instrument sets MUST not weigh more than Ans>> 25lbs
  2. 1. Choose the option that does NOT accurately depict concepts of imme- diate use steam sterilization (IUSS).

A. An instrument for IUSS should be cleaned in the scrub sink.

B. A rigid enclosed container is used for IUSS cycle.

C. A biological indicator is run with an implant load.

D. Items are not stored for future procedures.

Ans>> A. An instrument for IUSS should be cleaned in the scrub sink.

  1. 1. Which is an accurate statement regarding shelf-life?

A. A shelf-life is event related.

  1. 1. Retrieval of bullets and other metal objects for forensic study requires

A. Rinsing, washing and wiping the item clean of blood and other bodily fluids.

B. Retrieving the item with a metal instrument.

C. An open procedure rather than endoscopic procedure.

D. Metal instrument tip protective devices. Ans>> D. Metal instrument tip protective devices.

  1. 1. What action should be taken when transferring a specimen off the sterile field?

A. Wait until the end of the case to transfer the specimen into a container.

B. Deposit the specimen into the smallest container that can be closed.

C. Confirm the type of test that is be requested with the surgeon.

D. Immerse the specimen into preservative until further instruction.

Ans>> C.Confirm the type of test that is be requested with the surgeon.

  1. 1. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action for specimen han- dling on the sterile field?

A. Cover the specimen or place in a sterile specimen container.

B. Label the covered or contained specimen.

C. Ensure that the specimen stays dry until the transfer off the sterile field.

D. Handle the specimen as little as possible.

Ans>> C. Ensure that the specimen stays dry until the transfer off the sterile field.

  1. 1. The specimen transport container should

A. Display the patient's information for ease of specimen hand-over.

B. Have a biohazard label for fresh or frozen specimens only.

C. Be stored in the operating room until the specimen can be transported to the pathology department.

D. Protect the integrity of the specimen. Ans>> D. Protect the integrity of the specimen.

  1. 1. Specimen management errors can result in

A. A lower incident of morbidity.

B. Potential litigation.

C. Increase in community trust.

D. Faster diagnostic results. Ans>> B. Potential litigation.

  1. 1. Which of the following is NOT a laser safety precaution?
  1. 1. Which option is NOT a radiation exposure safety measure?

A. Time

B. Distance

C. Shielding

D. Exposure

Ans>> D. Exposure

  1. 1. Failure to follow instructions for use of a healthcare product or device

A. Adheres to equipment warranty.

B. Prevents patient injury.

C. May result in the hospital's accrediting body issuing citations.

D. Ensures correct device storage.

Ans>> C.May result in the hospital's accrediting body issuing citations.

  1. 1. What is a consideration of the abdominal perineal skin antisepsis?

A. The bladder is drained before the vaginal prep.

B. Three or more prep kits are needed.

C. Positioning devices should be ready for use prior to positioning.

D. The three areas that are prepped are the abdomen, vagina and thighs. Ans>> C. Positioning devices should be ready for use prior to positioning.

  1. 1. An important step in the preoperative skin antisepsis is the documenta- tion. Which element is recorded after surgery?

A. Pre-existing skin conditions.

B. Area prepped.

C. Skin antiseptic used.

D. Hypersensitivity.

Ans>> D. Hypersensitivity.

  1. 1. Choose the correct statement about general preoperative skin antisep- sis application measure.

A. Dilute prep solutions to avoid patient chemical burns.

B. Allow position devices to absorb additional prep solution.

C. Apply the antiseptic to an area larger than the intended incisional site.

D. Begin the prep during patient positioning.

Ans>> C. Apply the antiseptic to an area larger than the intended incisional site.

  1. 1. Which preoperative assessment option is NOT correct?

A. Discussion the presence of abrasions or lesions with the surgeon

B. Identify the most appropriate skin prep solution with the surgeon in the event of a patient allergy

C. Check that the surgical site marking is visible after the prep is completed

D. Instruct the patient not to remove jewelry prior to surgery Ans>> D. Instruct the patient not to remove jewelry prior to surgery

  1. 1. Skin antisepsis products can be flammable. Which of the following measures is NOT a recommended action?
  1. 1. To prevent a wrong site, wrong side or wrong patient event, who is responsible for marking the surgical site?

A. The patient or family member

B. Preoperative nurse

C. Intraoperative nurse

D. Licensed practitioner performing the procedure Ans>> D. Licensed practitioner performing the procedure

  1. 1. Of the following, which is NOT a characteristic of patient and family centered care?

A. Alliance between healthcare providers, the patient and the patient's support system

B. Focus on communication to all involved in the patient's care, the patient and the patient's family

C. Health care decisions provided to the patient and family

D. Patient and family participation in care

Ans>> C. Health care decisions provided to the patient and family

  1. 1. Which is NOT a key component of ERAS?

A. Patient and family education

B. Multimodal analgesia

C. Patient fasting 12 hours prior to surgery

D. Return to normal diet on the day of surgery Ans>> C. Patient fasting 12 hours prior to surgery

  1. 1. Which of the following social determinants of health relates to high lead in water and pediatric health?

A. Public safety

B. Healthy food availability

C. Access to health services

D. An environment free of life-threatening toxins. Ans>> D. An environment free of life-threatening toxins.

  1. 1. The definition of a health disparity is

A. Adherence to the standard of care for every individual

B. A higher burden of disease for some populations

C. The equal distribution of health care resources across population.

D. All of the above. Ans>> B. A higher burden of disease for some populations

  1. 1. An accountable care organization

A. Is a voluntary, coordinated effort across health care specialties.

B. Is a mandated, coordinated effort across health care specialties.

C. Provides an education-based program for surgical candidates.

D. Provides an education-based program for facility medical and nursing in- tern