Perioperative Nursing: A Comprehensive Review of Anesthesia and Patient Care, Exams of Nursing

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AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM REVIEW

Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)

1. All of the following professionals are qualified to provide anesthesia to a patient except: A: anesthesiologist B: surgeon C: AA D: CRNA: B
2. Which of the following is NOT a duty of the perioperative nurse during surgery? A: positioning forced-air warming equipment B: monitoring the patient's response to anesthesia C: obtaining and checking blood products D: monitoring the patient according to the preoperative plan of care and making adjustments as needed: B

3. Which of the following is not used to secure and manage a patient's airway? A: oral airway B: LMA C: ET tube D: nasal cannula: D
4. Which of the following monitors assesses depth of anesthesia? A: pulmonary artery catheter B: bispectral index monitor C: transesophageal echocardiography D: central venous pressure: B
5. Which of the following type of anesthesia must be administered by an anesthesia professional? Select all that apply: A: general anesthesia B: moderate sedation C: monitored anesthesia care D: local anesthesia: A, C, D
6. Which of the following type of airway maintenance usually requires muscle relaxants? A: spontaneous respiration B:

C: naloxone D: sugammadex: C

8. Which of the following neuraxial anesthesia procedures describes the spinal block? A: local anesthetic is injected near nerve bundles B: local anesthetic is injected into a vein after tourniquet inflation C: local anesthetic is injected into the space between the ligament flavum and dura D: local anesthetic is injected into the subarachnoid space: D
9. True or False: LAST occurs as a result of local medication injection directly into a blood vessel or from slow absorption.: True
10. Sedation can be used with any of the following types of anesthesia except: A: general B: monitored C: regional D: local: D
11. The most specific sign of an MH crisis is: A: an increase in end-tidal CO B: skin mottling C: hypertension D: tachycardia: A
12. Which of the following is associated with increased risk for perioperative hypothermia? A: hyperthyroidism B:

elderly patients C: high BMI D: hypertension: B

13. Identify the active warming methods (Select all that apply): A: forced-air warming methods B warmed IV fluids C: increased ambient room temperature D: surgical drapes E: circulating water garments F: cotton blankets: A, B, C, E
14. Which of the following would be an appropriate action for the perioperative nurse when assisting with anesthesia? A: document anesthetic agents used, dose, route and time B: apply cricoid pressure if needed during intubation

procedure? A: bacteria B: thrombus C: lymphatic fluids D: bolus of anesthetic: D

20. What are signs the patient is experiencing local anesthetic systemic toxi- city? A: ringing in the ears B: dizziness C: tingling sensation around lips D: All of the above: D
21. Which of the assessment factors is important to include when screening patient for potential risk of MH?

A: patient's use of OTC meds B: family history of problems related to anesthesia C: patient's age D: patient's use of herbal and vitamin supplements: B

22. The RN caring for the patient receiving moderate sedation/analgesia should: A: turn up the monitor alarms when prepping the patient B: be competent in the use of emergency resuscitation procedures C: call an anesthesia provider to administer reversal medications D: all of the above: B
23. True or false: Patients are responsible for providing only information that they want to share about themselves.: False
24. What must patient do to ensure accurate and appropriate health care? A: participate in treatment and care decisions B: provide accurate information about themselves C: provide information about their known conditions D: all of the above: D
25. A health history and physical is done to determine surgical risk. SDOH can guide the health care provider in a complete assessment. Which one of the following elements can impact an individual's availability for health care access? A: healthy food availability B: transportation options C: education opportunities D: segregation: B
26. A history and physical must be completed and documented before the patient's

28. Why is documentation of information essential to patient care? A: offers information in the event of a malpractice suit B: allows for evaluation of care provided C: supports submission of insurance bills D: provides information for planning patient care: B, C, D
29. What are the key advantages to ERAS for the patient? A: minimal fasting prior to surgery B: shortened hospital stay C: faster recovery D: education of the patient and family: A, B, C
30. The ERAS program is initiated prior to surgery and typically includes a multimodal pain management plan. Another element of ERAS can incorporate a carbohydrate beverage up to 2 hours before surgery. Why is communication about the ERAS initiative important to the perioperative nurse? A: NPO status B: pain level C: allergy status D: diagnostic test response: A
31. True or false: A cornerstone of patient quality and safety is patient engage- ment.: True
32. Which phase of the nursing process begins with an interview with the patient and their family? A: outcome identification B: perioperative assessment C: implementation

D: clinical documentation: B

33. Of the following, which was the first to incorporate the nursing diagnosis as part of the nursing process? A: ANA B: NANDA International C: New York State Board of Nursing D: North American Nursing Diagnosis Association: A
34. True or False: Always review who, what, where, when and why about your patient and their procedure after meeting your patient.: False
35. Most patient have concerns about surgery that are outside of the technical aspects on which consent is based. Which option best describes trust issues? A: giving control to others B: fear of the unknown

D: return to regular diet and activities on the day of surgery: A

40. The Nursing Alliance for Quality Care (NAQC) emphasizes patient-centered care that includes patient engagement. Which of the following is one of the nine assumptions of patient engagement? A: cultural, racial and ethnic diversity cannot be considered when healthcare providers make decisions for the patient B: nurses must form an active partnership with their patient, the patient's support system, and the patient's care providers C: circumstances surrounding the need for health care interventions do not influence the patient's level of engagement D: physicians must make the decisions about the patient's care: B
41. An element that is not part of the Surgical Checklist Pre-Procedure Check- In is:

A: confirmation of the surgical site marking(s) B: introduction of team members C: presence of the consent(s) and history and physical D: confirmation of the procedure and procedure site: B

42. The focused assessment collects data for a specific health issue through- out all nurse-patient interactions. Which element would the nurse assess for the integumentary system? A: dyspnea B: fall risk C: turgor D: hypoxia: C
43. Which of the following contains the elements of economic stability and built environment? A: patients' bill of rights B: social determinants of health C: enhanced recovery after surgery D: the joint commission requirements for the history and physical: B
44. Anxiety and stress cause unpleasant physiological reactions in patients before surgery. What can patient do to lessen their preoperative anxiety? A: listen to music B: practice aromatherapy C: perform meditation D: all of the above: D
45. Which of the following drugs is not an anticoagulant? A: lovenox B: heparin C:

C: sweat D: bile: C

48. What is an important element when assessing your patient's pain? A: asking the family member what level the patient's pain level is B: always having the patient read the pain scale C: always using the same scale with the same patient D: checking the patient's pain across two pain scales: C
49. MIS is an acronym for: A: multi-imaging surgery B: manual incision surgery C: multi-incision surgery D: minimally invasive surgery: D
50. During enoscoping sugery, which item is located on the sterile field? A: insufflation unit B: camera control unit C: endoscope D: recording device: C
51. The process of adjusting the camera so that the colors appear as natural as possible is called: A: wide frame B: white balance C: wide screen D: white out: B
52. What actions should be taken to prevent fire or other patient injury during the endoscopic surgery? Select all that apply.

A: check that all cables are secure before turning on the light source B: turn off the light source or place it in stand-by mode when it is not in use C: after the surgery is completed, disconnect the light cable from the endo- scope and lay it on the surgical drapes D: turn the light source on before the patient is draped for surgery: A, B

53. Which part of a trocar stays in the patient so that the surgeon can pass instruments through it to perform surgery? A: punch B: cannula C: obturator D: light cable: B
54. What are the characteristics of an atraumatic clamping instrument? Select all that apply. A:it can hold tissue

below the level of D: above the level of: D

59. Which statement is true related to irrigation and distension media used during endoscopic surgery? A: short surgical procedures increase the risk of fluid-related complications during endoscopic surgery B: the only way to instill irrigation and distension media is by using an infusion pump C: intravasation of irrigation and distension media can lead to hypernatremia D: the use of irrigation and distension media creates a working spaces and improves visualization of the surgical field.: D
60. Volume overload from absorption of non-electrolyte fluids used for irriga- tion during endoscopic surgery can lead to. A: hypernatremia

B: hyperkalemia C: hyponatremia: C

61. What safety practices can minimize the risk for injury from electrosurgical devices during endoscopic surgery? Select all that apply. A: use a conductive trocar system for the electricity to flow safely between the cannula and the abdominal wall. B: inspect the insulation on the endoscopic instruments before, during, and after use C: use the highest power setting to achieve the desires tissue effect D: the scrub person should assist the surgeon by activating the electrosurgi- cal foot pedal when requested.: A, B
62. Surgical smoke can cause depletion of the oxygen-carrying capability . A: RBCs B: platelets C: WBCs D: plasma: A
63. Moving the patient cart system over the sterile field and attaching the instruments to the robotic arm is referred to as. A: connecting B: securing C: docking D: locking: C
64. True or False: A hybrid OR must always be located within the surgical service department.: False
65. Which zone contains the MRI scanner? A: