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Perioperative Nursing: A Comprehensive Review of Anesthesia and Patient Care, Exams of Nursing

A valuable resource for students studying perioperative nursing, covering key aspects of anesthesia, patient monitoring, and safety protocols. it includes a series of multiple-choice questions and answers that test knowledge on topics such as types of anesthesia, airway management, medication reversal agents, and perioperative patient assessment. The questions cover a wide range of important concepts, making it a useful study tool for exams.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 04/25/2025

nursejulie
nursejulie 🇺🇸

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Download Perioperative Nursing: A Comprehensive Review of Anesthesia and Patient Care and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

AORN PERIOP 101 FINAL EXAM REVIEW

Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)

  1. All of the following professionals are qualified to provide anesthesia to a patient except: A: anesthesiologist B: surgeon C: AA D: CRNA: B
  2. Which of the following is NOT a duty of the perioperative nurse during surgery? A: positioning forced-air warming equipment B: monitoring the patient's response to anesthesia C: obtaining and checking blood products D: monitoring the patient according to the preoperative plan of care and making adjustments as needed: B
  1. Which of the following is not used to secure and manage a patient's airway? A: oral airway B: LMA C: ET tube D: nasal cannula: D
  2. Which of the following monitors assesses depth of anesthesia? A: pulmonary artery catheter B: bispectral index monitor C: transesophageal echocardiography D: central venous pressure: B
  3. Which of the following type of anesthesia must be administered by an anesthesia professional? Select all that apply: A: general anesthesia B: moderate sedation C: monitored anesthesia care D: local anesthesia: A, C, D
  4. Which of the following type of airway maintenance usually requires muscle relaxants? A: spontaneous respiration B:

C: naloxone D: sugammadex: C

  1. Which of the following neuraxial anesthesia procedures describes the spinal block? A: local anesthetic is injected near nerve bundles B: local anesthetic is injected into a vein after tourniquet inflation C: local anesthetic is injected into the space between the ligament flavum and dura D: local anesthetic is injected into the subarachnoid space: D
  2. True or False: LAST occurs as a result of local medication injection directly into a blood vessel or from slow absorption.: True
  3. Sedation can be used with any of the following types of anesthesia except: A: general B: monitored C: regional D: local: D
  4. The most specific sign of an MH crisis is: A: an increase in end-tidal CO B: skin mottling C: hypertension D: tachycardia: A
  5. Which of the following is associated with increased risk for perioperative hypothermia? A: hyperthyroidism B:

elderly patients C: high BMI D: hypertension: B

  1. Identify the active warming methods (Select all that apply): A: forced-air warming methods B warmed IV fluids C: increased ambient room temperature D: surgical drapes E: circulating water garments F: cotton blankets: A, B, C, E
  2. Which of the following would be an appropriate action for the perioperative nurse when assisting with anesthesia? A: document anesthetic agents used, dose, route and time B: apply cricoid pressure if needed during intubation

procedure? A: bacteria B: thrombus C: lymphatic fluids D: bolus of anesthetic: D

  1. What are signs the patient is experiencing local anesthetic systemic toxi- city? A: ringing in the ears B: dizziness C: tingling sensation around lips D: All of the above: D
  2. Which of the assessment factors is important to include when screening patient for potential risk of MH?

A: patient's use of OTC meds B: family history of problems related to anesthesia C: patient's age D: patient's use of herbal and vitamin supplements: B

  1. The RN caring for the patient receiving moderate sedation/analgesia should: A: turn up the monitor alarms when prepping the patient B: be competent in the use of emergency resuscitation procedures C: call an anesthesia provider to administer reversal medications D: all of the above: B
  2. True or false: Patients are responsible for providing only information that they want to share about themselves.: False
  3. What must patient do to ensure accurate and appropriate health care? A: participate in treatment and care decisions B: provide accurate information about themselves C: provide information about their known conditions D: all of the above: D
  4. A health history and physical is done to determine surgical risk. SDOH can guide the health care provider in a complete assessment. Which one of the following elements can impact an individual's availability for health care access? A: healthy food availability B: transportation options C: education opportunities D: segregation: B
  5. A history and physical must be completed and documented before the patient's
  1. Why is documentation of information essential to patient care? A: offers information in the event of a malpractice suit B: allows for evaluation of care provided C: supports submission of insurance bills D: provides information for planning patient care: B, C, D
  2. What are the key advantages to ERAS for the patient? A: minimal fasting prior to surgery B: shortened hospital stay C: faster recovery D: education of the patient and family: A, B, C
  3. The ERAS program is initiated prior to surgery and typically includes a multimodal pain management plan. Another element of ERAS can incorporate a carbohydrate beverage up to 2 hours before surgery. Why is communication about the ERAS initiative important to the perioperative nurse? A: NPO status B: pain level C: allergy status D: diagnostic test response: A
  4. True or false: A cornerstone of patient quality and safety is patient engage- ment.: True
  5. Which phase of the nursing process begins with an interview with the patient and their family? A: outcome identification B: perioperative assessment C: implementation

D: clinical documentation: B

  1. Of the following, which was the first to incorporate the nursing diagnosis as part of the nursing process? A: ANA B: NANDA International C: New York State Board of Nursing D: North American Nursing Diagnosis Association: A
  2. True or False: Always review who, what, where, when and why about your patient and their procedure after meeting your patient.: False
  3. Most patient have concerns about surgery that are outside of the technical aspects on which consent is based. Which option best describes trust issues? A: giving control to others B: fear of the unknown

D: return to regular diet and activities on the day of surgery: A

  1. The Nursing Alliance for Quality Care (NAQC) emphasizes patient-centered care that includes patient engagement. Which of the following is one of the nine assumptions of patient engagement? A: cultural, racial and ethnic diversity cannot be considered when healthcare providers make decisions for the patient B: nurses must form an active partnership with their patient, the patient's support system, and the patient's care providers C: circumstances surrounding the need for health care interventions do not influence the patient's level of engagement D: physicians must make the decisions about the patient's care: B
  2. An element that is not part of the Surgical Checklist Pre-Procedure Check- In is:

A: confirmation of the surgical site marking(s) B: introduction of team members C: presence of the consent(s) and history and physical D: confirmation of the procedure and procedure site: B

  1. The focused assessment collects data for a specific health issue through- out all nurse-patient interactions. Which element would the nurse assess for the integumentary system? A: dyspnea B: fall risk C: turgor D: hypoxia: C
  2. Which of the following contains the elements of economic stability and built environment? A: patients' bill of rights B: social determinants of health C: enhanced recovery after surgery D: the joint commission requirements for the history and physical: B
  3. Anxiety and stress cause unpleasant physiological reactions in patients before surgery. What can patient do to lessen their preoperative anxiety? A: listen to music B: practice aromatherapy C: perform meditation D: all of the above: D
  4. Which of the following drugs is not an anticoagulant? A: lovenox B: heparin C:

C: sweat D: bile: C

  1. What is an important element when assessing your patient's pain? A: asking the family member what level the patient's pain level is B: always having the patient read the pain scale C: always using the same scale with the same patient D: checking the patient's pain across two pain scales: C
  2. MIS is an acronym for: A: multi-imaging surgery B: manual incision surgery C: multi-incision surgery D: minimally invasive surgery: D
  3. During enoscoping sugery, which item is located on the sterile field? A: insufflation unit B: camera control unit C: endoscope D: recording device: C
  4. The process of adjusting the camera so that the colors appear as natural as possible is called: A: wide frame B: white balance C: wide screen D: white out: B
  5. What actions should be taken to prevent fire or other patient injury during the endoscopic surgery? Select all that apply.

A: check that all cables are secure before turning on the light source B: turn off the light source or place it in stand-by mode when it is not in use C: after the surgery is completed, disconnect the light cable from the endo- scope and lay it on the surgical drapes D: turn the light source on before the patient is draped for surgery: A, B

  1. Which part of a trocar stays in the patient so that the surgeon can pass instruments through it to perform surgery? A: punch B: cannula C: obturator D: light cable: B
  2. What are the characteristics of an atraumatic clamping instrument? Select all that apply. A:it can hold tissue

below the level of D: above the level of: D

  1. Which statement is true related to irrigation and distension media used during endoscopic surgery? A: short surgical procedures increase the risk of fluid-related complications during endoscopic surgery B: the only way to instill irrigation and distension media is by using an infusion pump C: intravasation of irrigation and distension media can lead to hypernatremia D: the use of irrigation and distension media creates a working spaces and improves visualization of the surgical field.: D
  2. Volume overload from absorption of non-electrolyte fluids used for irriga- tion during endoscopic surgery can lead to. A: hypernatremia

B: hyperkalemia C: hyponatremia: C

  1. What safety practices can minimize the risk for injury from electrosurgical devices during endoscopic surgery? Select all that apply. A: use a conductive trocar system for the electricity to flow safely between the cannula and the abdominal wall. B: inspect the insulation on the endoscopic instruments before, during, and after use C: use the highest power setting to achieve the desires tissue effect D: the scrub person should assist the surgeon by activating the electrosurgi- cal foot pedal when requested.: A, B
  2. Surgical smoke can cause depletion of the oxygen-carrying capability . A: RBCs B: platelets C: WBCs D: plasma: A
  3. Moving the patient cart system over the sterile field and attaching the instruments to the robotic arm is referred to as. A: connecting B: securing C: docking D: locking: C
  4. True or False: A hybrid OR must always be located within the surgical service department.: False
  5. Which zone contains the MRI scanner? A: