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AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam Review Questions and Answers Verified, Exams of Nursing

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AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam Review
Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)
1. All of the following professionals are qualified to provide
anesthesia to a patient except:
A: anesthesiologist B:
surgeon
C: AA
D:
CRNA:
B
2. Which of the following is NOT a duty of the perioperative nurse
during surgery?
A: positioning forced-air warming equipment
B: monitoring the patient's response to anesthesia C:
obtaining and checking blood products
D: monitoring the patient according to the preoperative plan of care
and making adjustments as needed: B
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AORN PERIOP 101 Final Exam Review Questions and Answers (Verified Revised Full Exam)

1. All of the following professionals are qualified to provide

anesthesia to a patient except: A: anesthesiologist B: surgeon C: AA D: CRNA: B

2. Which of the following is NOT a duty of the perioperative nurse

during surgery? A: positioning forced-air warming equipment B: monitoring the patient's response to anesthesia C: obtaining and checking blood products D: monitoring the patient according to the preoperative plan of care and making adjustments as needed: B

3. Which of the following is not used to secure and manage a patient's airway?

A: oral airway B: LMA C: ET tube D: nasal cannula: D

4. Which of the following monitors assesses depth of

anesthesia? A: pulmonary artery catheter B: bispectral index monitor C: transesophageal echocardiography D: central venous pressure: B

5. Which of the following type of anesthesia must be administered

by an anesthesia professional? Select all that apply: A: general anesthesia B: moderate sedation C: monitored anesthesia care D: local anesthesia: A, C, D

6. Which of the following type of airway maintenance usually requires

muscle relaxants? A: spontaneous respiration B:

C: naloxone D: sugammadex: C

8. Which of the following neuraxial anesthesia procedures describes the

spinal block? A: local anesthetic is injected near nerve bundles B: local anesthetic is injected into a vein after tourniquet inflation C: local anesthetic is injected into the space between the ligament flavum and dura D: local anesthetic is injected into the subarachnoid space: D

9. True or False: LAST occurs as a result of local medication injection

directly into a blood vessel or from slow absorption.: True

10. Sedation can be used with any of the following types of anesthesia

except: A: general B: monitored C: regional D: local: D

11. The most specific sign of an MH crisis is: A:

an increase in end-tidal CO B: skin mottling C: hypertension D: tachycardia: A

12. Which of the following is associated with increased risk for

perioperative hypothermia? A: hyperthyroidism B:

elderly patients C: high BMI D: hypertension: B

13. Identify the active warming methods (Select all that

apply): A: forced-air warming methods B warmed IV fluids C: increased ambient room temperature D: surgical drapes E: circulating water garments F: cotton blankets: A, B, C, E

14. Which of the following would be an appropriate action for the

perioperative nurse when assisting with anesthesia? A: document anesthetic agents used, dose, route and time B: apply cricoid pressure if needed during intubation

19. Which complication can arise with tourniquet deflation at the end of a Bier

block

procedure? A: bacteria B: thrombus C: lymphatic fluids D: bolus of anesthetic: D

20. What are signs the patient is experiencing local anesthetic systemic toxi-

city? A: ringing in the ears B: dizziness C: tingling sensation around lips D: All of the above: D

21. Which of the assessment factors is important to include when screening

patient for potential risk of MH?

surgery, high-risk procedure, or any procedure that involves anes- thesia. Why is it important that a relevant and complete assessment be per- formed? Select all that apply. A: to provide a patient-specific needs assessment B: to address a patient's condition C: to include a plan of care D: to include the cost of treatment: A, B, C

27. Data collection forms the baseline for perioperative care. What is the most

reliable source for patient data? A: chart B: family/significant other C: patient D: face to face reports from other health care providers: C

28. Why is documentation of information essential to patient

care? A: offers information in the event of a malpractice suit B: allows for evaluation of care provided C: supports submission of insurance bills D: provides information for planning patient care: B, C, D

29. What are the key advantages to ERAS for the

patient? A: minimal fasting prior to surgery B: shortened hospital stay C: faster recovery D: education of the patient and family: A, B, C

30. The ERAS program is initiated prior to surgery and typically includes a

multimodal pain management plan. Another element of ERAS can incorporate a carbohydrate beverage up to 2 hours before surgery. Why is communication about the ERAS initiative important to the perioperative nurse? A: NPO status B: pain level C: allergy status D: diagnostic test response: A

31. True or false: A cornerstone of patient quality and safety is patient engage-

ment.: True

32. Which phase of the nursing process begins with an interview with the

patient and their family? A: outcome identification B: perioperative assessment

D: clinical documentation: B

33. Of the following, which was the first to incorporate the nursing diagnosis as

part of the nursing process? A: ANA B: NANDA International C: New York State Board of Nursing D: North American Nursing Diagnosis Association: A

34. True or False: Always review who, what, where, when and why about your

patient and their procedure after meeting your patient.: False

35. Most patient have concerns about surgery that are outside of the technical

aspects on which consent is based.Which option best describes trust issues? A: giving control to others B: fear of the unknown

C: concerns about the postoperative phase D: not waking up from anesthesia: A

36. Why is the preoperative nursing assessment important?

A: the patient may have physical limitations separate from the scheduled surgery B: the nurse can anticipate positioning needs of the patient C: the patient may remember an allergy that was discussed previously D: All of the above: D

37. As a patient advocate, perioperative RNs are responsible for knowing the

patient's allergy status and reviewing what meds the patient takes. Of the fol- lowing durg classifications, which one can potentiate electrolyte imbalances, especially potassium, after surgery? A: diuretics B: anticonvulsants C: corticosteroids D: insulin: A

38. Which of the following is not a patient risk factor associated with

alco- holism? A: increased stress response B: decreased bleeding times C: increased cardiac complications D: decreased immunity: B

39. Which of the following is not a key element of

ERAS? A: opioid-only pain relief B: patient and family education C: minimal fasting prior to surgery

A: confirmation of the surgical site marking(s) B: introduction of team members C: presence of the consent(s) and history and physical D: confirmation of the procedure and procedure site: B

42. The focused assessment collects data for a specific health issue through-

out all nurse-patient interactions. Which element would the nurse assess for the integumentary system? A: dyspnea B: fall risk C: turgor D: hypoxia: C

43. Which of the following contains the elements of economic stability and

built environment? A: patients' bill of rights B: social determinants of health C: enhanced recovery after surgery D: the joint commission requirements for the history and physical: B

44. Anxiety and stress cause unpleasant physiological reactions in patients

before surgery. What can patient do to lessen their preoperative anxiety? A: listen to music B: practice aromatherapy C: perform meditation D: all of the above: D

45. Which of the following drugs is not an

anticoagulant? A: lovenox B: heparin C:

tylenol D: fragmin: C

46. When should anticoagulants be discontinued prior to surgery?

A: 36 hours B: 24 hours C: 48 hours D: 12 hours: C

47. Virtually every body system is affected by Cannibis.Tetrahydrocannabinol

(THC) is metabolized through the liver. Which of the following is not a route elimination? A: urine B: feces

52. What actions should be taken to prevent fire or other patient injury

during the endoscopic surgery? Select all that apply.

A: check that all cables are secure before turning on the light source B: turn off the light source or place it in stand-by mode when it is not in use C: after the surgery is completed, disconnect the light cable from the endo- scope and lay it on the surgical drapes D: turn the light source on before the patient is draped for surgery: A, B

53. Which part of a trocar stays in the patient so that the surgeon

can pass instruments through it to perform surgery? A: punch B: cannula C: obturator D: light cable: B

54. What are the characteristics of an atraumatic clamping instrument? Select

all that apply. A:it can hold tissue