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Which of the following best describes the anatomic position? a) Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent b) Standing in profile with the hands on the hips c) Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward d) Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head - ansc) Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward The wrist is ________ to the elbow. a) dorsal b) distal c) medial d) inferior - ansb) distal To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? a) upper arm b) throat c) armpit d) wrist - ansd) wrist A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? a) Two fractures in the same femur b) A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma c) Fractures of both femurs d) A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh - ansc) Fractures of both femurs The term lateral is best defined as: a) toward the middle of. b) to the back of. c)
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under the arms. d) to the side. - ansd) to the side. Which of the following best describes the location of the midaxillary line? a) A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone b) A line from the center of the armpit extending vertically down the side of the chest c) A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel d) A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other across the front of the body - ansb) A line from the center of the armpit extending vertically down the side of the chest Which of the following describes the Fowler position? a) sitting upright with the legs straight b) lying on the side c) lying flat on your back d) lying on the stomach - ansa) sitting upright with the legs straight While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in a report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? a) The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. b) The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. c) The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for d) It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize
- ansb) The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? a) caudal b) posterior c)
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19.5 percent - ansd) 19.5 percent Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon? a) Vesicants b) Bomb containing radioactive material c) Plastic explosives d) Bacterial toxin - ansa) Vesicants Which of the following is not traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism? a) Activation of the notification process b) Identification of any indicators of a particular agent c) Establishing perimeter control d) Scene size-up - ansb) Identification of any indicators of a particular agent You are on the scene of a blast from an incendiary device. You notice that several patients are walking around with minor injuries, but they do not respond when you ask the "walking wounded" to follow you to a specific location for treatment. What should you do? a) Speak louder. b) Start checking vital signs and tagging each patient c) Ignore them and start treating other patients. d) Use signs to give directions - ansd) Use signs to give directions Which of the following features increases the appeal of an infectious agent for use in terrorist attacks? a) Low potency b) High infectivity c) Instability d) Low virulence - ansb) High infectivity Biologic warfare is most effective when the agent can gain access through which of the following routes?
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a) blood b) respiratory tract c) skin d) gastrointestinal tract - ansb) respiratory tract Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells? a) Blister agents b) Cyanide c) Nerve agents d) All of the above - ansb) Cyanide Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents except: a) nuclear agents. b) allergens c) biologic agents. d) explosives - ansb) allergens A 59-year-old male has suffered a severe laceration from a circular saw while cutting wood in his garage. Upon your arrival, you find the patient sitting on the floor in a pool of blood. He is extremely pale. Based on your knowledge of pathophysiology, you would expect his body to try to compensate for the blood loss in all of the following ways, except: a) increased pulse b) increased respirations c) sweaty skin d) constricted pupils - ansd) constricted pupils When carbon dioxide is not exchanged, the net result is high carbon dioxide, a condition called ________, within the body. a) oncotic pressure
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d) stretch receptors. - ansd) stretch receptors. Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and systemic allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem? a) Loss of tone b) Increased SVR c) Hypertension d) Permeability - ansa) Loss of tone Graves' disease is an example of a condition caused by: a) too many hormones b) adrenal insufficiency c) gastrointestinal bleeding. d) damage to the medulla oblongata. - ansa) too many hormones Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as: a) preload b) automaticity c) afterload d) contractility - ansd) contractility The balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to regulating: a) waste removal and urine b) oxygenation and perfusion. c) blood pressure and cell hydration. d) perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues - ansc) blood pressure and cell hydration. Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following? a)
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Contraction of the heart b) Constriction of the vessels c) Large proteins d) Dilation of the vessels - ansc) Large proteins Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing? a) diaphragm b) pharnyx c) epiglottis d) cricoid cartilage - ansc) epiglottis What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs? a) aorta b) pulmonary veins c) pulmonary artery d) venae cavae - ansc) pulmonary artery Your unit has arrived on the scene of a multiple vehicle collision where several vehicles have rear-ended each other. You are directed by the incident commander to care for a 23-year-old female in the first vehicle. The firefighter on-scene holding manual spinal immobilization indicates that her primary complaint is back pain from her head whipping back and forth from the impact. Your understanding of the anatomy of the spinal column and vertebrae suggests that this type of mechanism of injury results in frequent injuries to which part of the spinal column? a) cervical spine b) sacral spine c) thoracic spine d) lumbar spine - ansa) cervical spine An artery is a blood vessel that only: a)
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b) smooth c) brachial arteries d) coronary arteries - ansb) smooth Failure of the liver would result in which of the following? a) Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream b) Inability to filter out old and damaged blood cells c) Inability to secrete insulin d) Inability to regulate temperature - ansa) Inability to detoxify harmful substances in the bloodstream What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage? a) Decreased production of carbon dioxide b) Decrease in pulse rate c) Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues d) Decreased ability to fight infection - ansc) Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues Which of the following may be a hazard at the scene of a vehicle collision? a) Electrocution b) Hazardous materials c) Other emergency vehicles d) All of the above - ansd) All of the above You are on the scene of a tanker truck versus passenger vehicle collision on a rural highway. The vehicles are just beyond a curve in the roadway and there is a distinct odor of diesel fuel. It is dark and there is little traffic. Which of the following should be used to alert oncoming traffic to the situation? a) Yellow crime scene tape b) Flares c) Flashing lights on the ambulance
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d) Reflective triangles - ansd) Reflective triangles Where should the EMT assess for injury when caring for a patient who had a 10-foot fall and landed square on his feet? a) Patient's ankles b) Patient's femur c) Patient's pelvis d) All of the above - ansd) All of the above In which of the following situations should the EMT consult the Emergency Response Guidebook? a) Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool b) Domestic disturbance with the potential for violence c) Patient with a suspected infectious disease d) Downed power lines at the scene of a vehicle collision - ansa) Chlorine gas leak at a public swimming pool You are called to a motor vehicle collision where the car is on fire. You should ensure safety by a) putting your unit back in service and leaving the scene b) borrowing turnout gear from the fire department. c) remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out d) using your fire extinguisher to put out the fire. - ansc) remaining a safe distance from the car until the fire is out An injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissue is known as which of the following? a) Penetrating trauma b) Cavitating trauma c) Puncturing trauma d) Impaling trauma - ansa) Penetrating trauma
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Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? a) The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum or the base of the nostril b) The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways c) If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted d) It can only be placed in the right nostril - ansa) The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum or the base of the nostril You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should: a) tape the dentures in place b) use an infant mask over the nose c) remove the dentures d) leave the dentures in place - ansd) leave the dentures in place The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: a) snoring b) stridor c) hoarseness d) gurgling - ansb) stridor On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the patient's side upon arrival on the scene? a) motor vehicle collision b) seizure c) cardiac arrest d) all of the above - ansd) all of the above When inserting an oropharyngeal airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patient's pharynx? a) 180 b)
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c) 45 d) 90 - ansa) 180 Which of the following patients should not have their airway opened using a head-tilt, chin- lift maneuver? a) A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure. b) A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. c) A 35-year-old diabetic woman in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband. d) A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter. - ansb) A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of at least ________ liters per minute and create a vacuum of no less than ________ mmHg. a) 300; 30 b) 30; 300 c) 30; 30 d) 300; 330 - ansb) 30; 300 You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway? a) using a 14 french suction catheter b) using a large bore suction tubing without the tip or catheter attached c) using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip d) irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning - ansb) using a large bore suction tubing without the tip or catheter attached Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? a) Movement of air around the mouth and nose b)
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d) remove the yellow cylinder and get a green cylinder - ansd) remove the yellow cylinder and get a green cylinder A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is a normal color and his pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: a) distress. b) hypoxia c) arrest d) failure. - ansa) distress. Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration? a) A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide. b) A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood c) The remaining red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported. d) The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space. - ansb) A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? a) It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space. b) The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement. c) The lungs may not have adequate time to fill and exchange gas d) The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases it. - ansc) The lungs may not have adequate time to fill and exchange gas What is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask? a) 100% b) 16%
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c) 50% d) 21% - ansc) 50% Which of the following describes why fast respiration may decrease minute volume? a) It is due to the delay in the movement of the intercostal muscles and the pleural space. b) The rate causes turbulence in the trachea that increases the friction and decreases the amount of air movement c) The lungs may not have adequate time to fill and exchange gas. d) The rate does not decrease minute volume; it actually increases it - ansc) The lungs may not have adequate time to fill and exchange gas. Which of the following best describes inadequate breathing? a) the minute volume is greater than normal b) the minute volume is less than normal c) the respiratory rate is faster than normal d) the respiratory rate is slower than normal - ansb) the minute volume is less than normal Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure? a) Float ball b) Flowmeter c) Regulator d) Filter - ansc) Regulator Which of the following situations best illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? a) An EMT who is off duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help b) An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic c) The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician d) An EMT transports a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff. - ansd)
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Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care. Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the best way to obtain consent for treatment? a) Act on implied consent b) Call the patient's mother at work c) Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. d) Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor. - ansb) Call the patient's mother at work An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment, so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? a) The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment b) The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. c) The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping d) The EMT is negligent because the patient died. - ansb) The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act. 2 EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate 50-year-old male patient who passed out and cut upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true? a) The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation. b) The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition. c) The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form d) The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. - ansa) The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation. Which of the following is the EMT's primary responsibility at a secured crime scene? a) Preserving evidence
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b) Taking notes that may be needed during court testimony c) Identifying any potential suspects encountered at the scene d) Providing patient care - ansd) Providing patient care The EMT's obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? a) standard of care b) scope of practice c) duty to act d) legal responsibility - ansc) duty to act Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? a) Breach of duty b) Patient advocacy c) Transfer of care d) Definitive care - ansc) Transfer of care After delivering a patient to the emergency department, you discuss with hospital staff the details of your care and ask for suggestions to improve your care. This is an example of your role in which of the following? a) Continuing education b) Transfer of care c) Patient advocacy d) Quality improvement - ansd) Quality improvement Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? a) Law enforcement b) All crew members c)
