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ARRT Practice Questions: Radiography and Imaging Principles, Exams of Company Secretarial Practice

College of Southern MarylandCompany Secretarial Practice

A comprehensive set of practice questions covering various aspects of radiography and imaging principles. It includes questions on radiographic procedures, patient positioning, radiation safety, image quality, and equipment. The questions are designed to test knowledge and understanding of fundamental concepts in the field.

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 03/09/2025

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ARRT Practice Questions
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_228439
1. What radiographic procedure must you use sterile gloves for touching items
on the tray?: Myelogram
2. Written defamation of character is known as?: Libel
3. Which drug would you administer when a patient develops urticaria?: Anti-
histamine
4. What is another name for hives?: Urticaria
5. A skin rash triggered by a reaction to food, medicine, or other irritants.: Hive
Or
Urticaria
6. Transmission of an infection by insects such as a tick or mosquito is known
as a?: Vector
7. When an object is free of all microorganisms it is termed?: Sterile
8. Why is the IV bag 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein?: To prevent the
backflow of blood into the tubing which forms a clot and obstructs the flow of the IV
fluid
9. An inanimate object that is been in contact with an infectious organism is
a?: Fomite
10. a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be
used because it may be harmful to the person.: Contraindication
11. The main advantage of using non-ionic water-soluble contrast media on
the patient would be?: Fewer adverse reactions
12. What type of radiographic procedure requires an intrathecal injection?: -
Myelogram
13. ______ is a route of administration for drugs via an injection into the spinal
canal: intrathecal
14. Which gauge size has the biggest lumen?: The smallest number gauge has
the biggest lumen
15. If the CR is angled 40° Cephalic what projection of the calcareous so calcis
are you taking?: Plantodorsal Projection
16. In the thoracic cavity each lung is enclosed in a?: Pleura
17. Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the long arch?: Lateral-
medial erect or weight-bearing
18. In the AP axial projection Townes of the skull with the CR directed 30°
caudal to the OML and passing midway between the EAM which structures
best demonstrated?: Occipital Bone
19. not alive, especially not in the manner of animals and humans.
1 / 15
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Download ARRT Practice Questions: Radiography and Imaging Principles and more Exams Company Secretarial Practice in PDF only on Docsity!

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. What radiographic procedure must you use sterile gloves for touching items on the tray?: Myelogram
  2. Written defamation of character is known as?: Libel
  3. Which drug would you administer when a patient develops urticaria?: Anti- histamine
  4. What is another name for hives?: Urticaria
  5. A skin rash triggered by a reaction to food, medicine, or other irritants.: Hive Or Urticaria
  6. Transmission of an infection by insects such as a tick or mosquito is known as a?: Vector
  7. When an object is free of all microorganisms it is termed?: Sterile
  8. Why is the IV bag 18 to 20 inches above the level of the vein?: To prevent the backflow of blood into the tubing which forms a clot and obstructs the flow of the IV fluid
  9. An inanimate object that is been in contact with an infectious organism is a?: Fomite
  10. a specific situation in which a drug, procedure, or surgery should not be used because it may be harmful to the person.: Contraindication
  11. The main advantage of using non-ionic water-soluble contrast media on the patient would be?: Fewer adverse reactions
  12. What type of radiographic procedure requires an intrathecal injection?: - Myelogram
  13. ______ is a route of administration for drugs via an injection into the spinal canal: intrathecal
  14. Which gauge size has the biggest lumen?: The smallest number gauge has the biggest lumen
  15. If the CR is angled 40° Cephalic what projection of the calcareous so calcis are you taking?: Plantodorsal Projection
  16. In the thoracic cavity each lung is enclosed in a?: Pleura
  17. Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the long arch?: Lateral- medial erect or weight-bearing
  18. In the AP axial projection Townes of the skull with the CR directed 30° caudal to the OML and passing midway between the EAM which structures best demonstrated?: Occipital Bone
  19. not alive, especially not in the manner of animals and humans.

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ objects like stones showing no sign of life; lifeless.: inanimate

  1. An imaging examination that involves the introduction of a spinal needle into the spinal canal and the injection of contrast material in the space around the spinal cord and nerve roots (the subarachnoid space) using a real-time form of x-ray called fluoroscopy.: Myelogram
  2. The best way to control voluntary motion is?: Careful explanation of the procedure to the patient
  3. What is demonstrated on the oblique position of the cervical spine?: Inter- vertebral foramina
  4. In relation to the Esophagus the trachea is located where?: The trachea is anterior in relation to the esophagus
  5. Which position will demonstrate the right axillary ribs?: RPO Or LAO
  6. The manubrial notch is located at the level of?: T2-t3 interspace
  7. Which projection of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibio fibular joint?: Medial oblique 45°
  8. What is the position of the gallbladder in a Asthenic patient?: Inferior and medial
  9. The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following princi- ples?: Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR MSP parallel to the IR IOML parallel to the IR
  10. During myelography a contrast medium is injected into which space?: - Subarachnoid space
  11. Which position of the elbow will separate the radial head neck and tuberos- ity from the superimposition of the ulna?: Lateral or external oblique
  12. With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR where will the Petrous pyramids be demonstrated within the orbits?: - Completely within the orbits
  13. The sternoclavicular joint is best demonstrated with the patient PA and ?: A slightly oblique position with the affected side adjacent to the IR. RAO
  14. What position will demonstrate the patients left kidney parallel to the IR and the right kidney perpendicular to the IR?: 30 degrees RPO or LAO

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. What should you use if you have to restrain a child or infant in order to perform a procedure?: Restraining them with the use of a mechanical device if you cannot use a mechanical device have the patients father hold the child
  2. According to the NCRP the annual occupational full body does equipment limit is?: 5 rem 50 mSv 5000 mrem
  3. How will the x-ray photons intensity be affected if the SID is doubled?: The intensity of the beam will decrease four times this is known as the inverse square law
  4. If the patient received 2000 MRAD during a 10 minute fluoro exam how much exposure will the patient recieve in five-minutes?: 1000 Mrad which is half of what they received in 10 minutes
  5. The photo electric effect is an interaction between x-ray photons and...: - And inner shell electron
  6. What is recommended for the pregnant radiographer to use as far as the dosimeter badge?: Wear one dosimeter badge outside the lead apron at the collar level and one dosimeter badge inside the lead apron at the level of the waist so A total of two badges are worn and these badges position should never be interchanged
  7. What is likely to occur if 25 Rad is delivered to fetus in early pregnancy?- : Spontaneous abortion will occur if 25 rad were to be delivered to fetus during the second through the 10th week skeletal abnormalities may appear
  8. How does filtration affect the primary beam?: It increases the average energy of the primary beam by filtering out the low-energy photons
  9. The unit of measurement used to express occupational exposure is the?- : REM (seivert)
  10. The unit of absorbed dose is?: Rad (gray)
  11. Biologic material is most sensitive to irradiation under which condition?- : Oxygenated
  12. The reduction in the intensity of the x-ray beam as it passes through a material is termed?: Attenuation
  13. The largest amount of diagnostic x-ray absorption occurs in which tissue?- : Bone since it is the most dense tissue
  14. The effects of radiation on biological material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_ time the fact will be?: The effect will be less than if it were delivered all at one time for a short period of time

  1. What interaction contributes most to occupational exposure?: Compton Scatter
  2. What factors affect both the quality and the quantity of the primary been?- : Half value layer (hvl) KV
  3. The unit of exposure in air is?: Roentgen (C/kg)
  4. How often should lead aprons and lead gloves be check for cracks?: An- nually or once a year by the fluoroscope
  5. Which radiation monitors function on the basis of stimulated lumines- cence?: 0SL and TLD
  6. What is the single most important scattering object in both radiography in Fluoroscopy?: The patient
  7. A group of exposure factors are given which one will deliver the least amount of exposure?: Highest KVp with lowest mass will give the least or safest amount
  8. The purpose of filters in a film badge is?: To measure radiation quality
  9. Compton scatter occurs when a high-energy incident electron ejects what?: An outer shell electron
  10. When a fast screen film system is used with the slow screen film automatic system the resulting images are?: Too dark or overexposed
  11. A change to 3 phase and 6 pulse = ____ (original mAs): 2/
  12. A change to 3 phase and 12 pulse = ____ (original mAs): 1/
  13. What does a penetimeter evaluate?: Penumbra
  14. Edge blur: Penumbra
  15. Field of view (FoV)/ matrix =: Pixel Size
  16. As matrix size increases pixel size: Decreases
  17. mAs controls: Density
  18. KVP controls: Contrast
  19. Windowing: Changing image brightness Contrast Scale
  20. A star pattern tests what?: Focal spot size
  21. In three phase equipment half of the expected arc is a sign of?: Rectifier failure
  22. For three-phase equipment a synchronous spinning top test is used to check?: Rectifier function and test timer accuracy

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. What has an effect on recorded detail?: SID is directly proportional Increasing SID will decrease magnification and increase recorded detail.
  2. A decrease in SID will do what to magnification? Do what to recorded detail?: Increase magnification Decrease recorded detail
  3. Increasing SID will______magnification and_____recorded detail.: De- crease Increase
  4. A smaller focal spot size will____recorded detail since the focal spot blur is smaller?: Increase
  5. A larger focal spot size will____recorded details since greater blur is produced: Decrease
  6. **Density (brightness) is controlled by

2.:** 1. The number of the exit (remnant) rays sticking the IR

  1. Window leveling
  2. What controls the number of electrons passing from the cathode to the anode an x-ray tube?: Mas
  3. What controls the quantity of the x-rays produced at the anode?: Mas
  4. Quantity: Mas
  5. Quality: Kvp
  6. What controls the amount of radiation exiting the x-ray tube?: Mas
  7. As mas is increased density is____in the same amount: Increased
  8. As mas is decreased density_____in the same amount: Decreases
  9. What directly controls the energy or quality of the x-rays produced?: Kvp
  10. As KVP _____, a greater potential difference exists between the cathode in the anode: Increases
  11. As the_____ __________increases, the electrons from the cathode strike the anode in greater numbers and with greater energy: Potential difference
  12. As a Kvp increases a greater potential difference excists which results in an increase level of production of___wavelength and high-energy radiation: - Short

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. KVP's affect on density is governed by what?: 15% rule
  2. A increases in KVp of 15% ___ density: Doubles
  3. A decrease in KVp by 15% _____ density: 1/2s
  4. Intensity of the x-ray beam is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the source of x-rays and the image receptor: Inverse square law
  5. Intensity is measured in: Roentgens Or coulombs/kilogram (SI)
  6. Radiographic density is a function of what?: Beam intensity
  7. Beam intensity is governed by the?: Inverse square law
  8. The inverse square law describes changes in____ ______: Beam intensity (and radiographic density which is a function of being intensity)
  9. If the SID is doubled intensity (density)....: Decreases four times
  10. If distance is halved, intensity (density) ...: Increase four times
  11. Variations in intensity is the result of the____of the x-ray beam as it travels through space: Divergence
  12. Different atomic number Same numbers of neutrons: Isotones
  13. Same element Same atomic number Different mass: Isotope
  14. Different atomic number Same mass: Isobar
  15. During the first part of the first term of a pregnancy what type of abnor- malities occur?: Skeletal
  16. During the second part of the first term of pregnancy what type of abnor- malities occur?: Neurologic
  17. General diagnostic exams deliver a fetal dose less than _- RAD: 1-
  18. Late effects Malignancy

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. Pus in the thoracic cavity: Empyema
  2. Over distentions of air in the alveoli: Emphysema
  3. Congential Clubfoot: Talipes Deformed talus shortened Achilles' tendon
  4. In which view is the OML at a 37° angle?: Waters
  5. In which view are the petrous ridges projected below the maxillary sinus- es?: Waters
  6. When are the petrous ridges below the orbits?: Caldwell at 30 degrees caudad
  7. When are the petrous ridges in the bottom one thirds of the orbits?: PA caldwell 15 degrees caudad
  8. When do the petrous ridges fill the orbits?: PA view
  9. Where is the degree difference of the OML and the IOML for a baby or small child?: 14 degrees
  10. What is the degree difference between the OML and IOML for an adult?: 7 degrees
  11. Glossitis: Inflammation of the tongue
  12. 1 sec: 1000ms
  13. Smallest carpal: Pisiform
  14. Most palpable carpal: Pisiform
  15. In which position is the pisiform free from superimposition?: AP medial oblique
  16. Processes of the scapula?: Coracoid Acromion
  17. Elimination of all living microorganisms: Sterilization
  18. The frontal sinuses and ethmoidal are best used in the...: Pa axial caldwell
  19. The sphenoid sinus is best viewed in the...: Open mouth waters
  20. The maxillary sinuses are best viewed in the ....: Waters
  21. In which view is the dorsum sellae and posterior clinoid process project- ed through the Foramina Magnum?: Townes
  22. CR spatial frequency/resolution increases as PSP.....: Crystal size decreas- es
  23. CR spatial frequency/resolution increases as ...: Matrix size increases
  24. In electronic imaging brightness/density changes with changes in...: Win- dow level

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. In electronic imaging contrast changes with changes in...: Window width
  2. Electronic imaging there is a___dynamic range: Wide
  3. In electronic Imaging there is a greater...: Exposure latitude
  4. In electronic imaging mas and KV do not regulate ....: density/brightness and contrast
  5. In electronic imaging IP's are very...: Sensitive to fog
  6. When a CR artifact appears such as image fading what is the cause?: De- lay in processing
  7. When a CR artifacts such as fog appears what is the cause?: Exposure to scattered radiation
  8. When a large field of view is used the image is___and requires___expo- sure: Brighter Less
  9. When a small field of view is used that image is___bright and re- quires___exposure: Less More
  10. CR spatial frequency/resolution increases as laser...: Beam size decreases
  11. A grid results in ....... 1 2 3 : Less scatter fog Fewer gray tones Increase in contrast
  12. Beam restriction =: A decrease in Compton interations
  13. Contrast decreases as filtration ____: Increases
  14. Anatomy/pathology = ________ ______: Subject contrast
  15. What controls contrast ?: Atomic number Tissue density Tissue thickness Contrast agents
  16. Atomic number effects on contrast: Increase in atomic number = increase in contrast
  17. Tissue density and thickness effects on contrasts: Increase in tissue den- sity or thickness = decrease in contrast
  18. Contrast agents equal a.....: Increase in contrast

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. Percentage of time that the primary beam is directed toward a particular wall: Use factor
  2. Achalasia: Dilation of the esophagus The cardiac sphincters failure to relax and allow food to pass
  3. A low energy x-Ray photon uses all of its energy to eject an inner-shell electron: Photoelectric effect
  4. Loss of brightness = _____ FOV: Decreased
  5. RAD: Radiation absorbed dose
  6. Unit of exposure measures quantity of ionization in the air: Roentgen
  7. Dose to the biological tissue: rem
  8. Rate at which particulate or photon energy is transferred to the absorber- : LET
  9. Measures quality of radiation: LET
  10. Hair losss: Epilation
  11. Tissue without O2: Anoxic
  12. Tissue with little o2: Hypoxic
  13. Intensity =: Quantity
  14. The thicker portion should be under the ______: Cathode side
  15. The upper part of the lateral T spine should be under what?: The cathode side
  16. When is the anode heal effect more pronounced?: Large IR with a short SID Because the anode has a steep target angle
  17. A high S number: Underexposure
  18. A high Ei number: Overexposure
  19. Strep throat is a____: Bacteria
  20. Most of the primary beam is made up of_____: brems Radiation
  21. An electron approaching a positive nuclear charge changes direction and loses energy: Brems radiation production
  22. An x-ray to the inner target needs to have a____ ______ number and a____ ______ point: High atomic High melting
  23. True or false the cathode assembly receives both low and high voltages: True

Study online at https://quizlet.com/_

  1. High scale contrast =: Short scale contrast
  2. CRs use ____ while DRs do not: IPs
  3. The term_____is used to describe how much of the patient is included in the matrix: FOV
  4. What permits the flow of current in only One Direction?: A rectifier
  5. Interaction with low energy photons: Compton scatter
  6. Which is the source of most scattered radiation?: Patient
  7. When is more high energy photons produced?: High kvp
  8. Quantity: MA
  9. 50 rem = _____ msv: 500
  10. The punch/penetrability: Kvp
  11. High mAs ____ number of photons produced: High ....is unrelated to photon energy
  12. ____ mas _____ kVP Keeps radiation dose to a minimum Tube life is extended: Low mAs high kvp
  13. LET: Linear Energy Transfer
  14. The rate at which energy is transferred from ionizing radiation to the soft tissue: LET
  15. Leakage radiation is a form of ________ radiation: Secondary
  16. The _________ radiation barrier has a _____ inch lead wall above _____feet.: Secondary 1/ 7
  17. True or false Secondary barriers should never be struck by the useful beam: True
  18. True or false Primary barriers can be struck by the primary beam: True