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ASCP MLS Exam 2025 | Medical Laboratory
Scientist Exam | American Society for Clinical
Pathology (ASCP) | Questions and Correct
Answers | Just Released
What feature is most often found with patients with a splenectomy on a Wright's stained blood smear? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Howell-Jolly bodies Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Surface antigen (HbSAg) Which two of the following tests are helpful for documenting previous Streptococcal throat and skin infections: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- ASO titer and Anti-DNase B In mass spectrometry, the "appearance potential" is defined as the: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Minimum energy required for the appearance of a particular fragment ion in mass spectrum What is generally accepted as the lower threshold value for semen pH from fertile males? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------7.
Coulometry: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------An automated method for measuring chloride which generates silver ions in the reaction Erythroleukemia: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Also known as Acute Myelogenous Leukemia type M6. This type is associated with either the presence of both erythroid and myeloid precursors OR strictly erythroid precursors. Myelomonocytic leukemia ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Is associated with an increase in myeloid and monocytic cell precursors, but not red blood cell precursors Species that are Lysine (+), arginine (=) and ornithine (+): ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Enterobacter aerogenes, Edwardsiella species and most Serratia species Lysine reaction for all Citrobacter: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Negative Key identifying characteristic for Pantoa (Enterobacter) agglomerans: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------negative reactions for the three decarboxylases commonly tested ( Lysine, arginine and ornithine)
Weight gain from fluid retention Poor appetite High blood pressure Key Biochemical reactions for Enterobacteriaceae: ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ----------The key biochemical reactions by which the family Enterobacteriaceae can be identified include fermentation of carbohydrates, reduction of nitrates to nitrites and the absence of cytochrome oxidase activity. ANA ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------See 2 quiz # Prozone effect: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Results in a false positive reaction; is the result of antibody excess and dilution of antibody can help prevent its occurrence Purpose of a bi-chromatic analyzer with dual wavelengths is: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Minimize the effect of interference Key characteristics of Micrococcus: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- Susceptible to bacitracin ("A") and resistant to furazolidone; gram positive cocci in tetras, bacteria cells of micrococcus luteus are larger than those of the staphylococci and can arrange in tetras
What is the glomerular filtration rate for a patient with a serum creatinine of 2 mg/dL, if the urine creatinine was 124 mg/dL and the urine volume was 2.2 L/ hrs? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------95 mL/min One method of calculating a glomerular filtration rate is using creatinine and urine volume to determine creatinine clearance. The equation is as follows: Creatinine Clearance = (urine creatinine X urine flow rate) / plasma creatinine; where urine flow rate = volume in mL /24 hours x h/60 min) In this case = creatinine clearance = 124 X (2200/24 x hour/60) / 2 = 94.7 or 95 ml/min Estrogen and progesterone markers are most commonly used to provide prognostic information about: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Breast cancer The prozone effect ( when performing a screening titer) is most likely to result in: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Prozone effect (due to antibody excess) will result in an initial false negative in spite of the large amount of antibody in the serum, followed by a positive result as the specimen is diluted. Which of the following Rh antigens is found the highest frequency in the Caucasian population:
The sickling phenomenon observed in erythrocytes containing hemoglobin S may be induced by which of the following? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- Reducing agents actually induce the sickling phenomenon in RBCs when they contain hemoglobin S. If an autologous blood donor weighs 35 kg, how much blood can be collected for later transfusion? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------315 mL Volume to draw = (Donor's weight in kilograms / 50 kg (minimum weight requirement) x 450 mL (volume of unit to be donated) In this case, Volume to draw = (35 kg / 50 kg) x 450 mL = 315 mL Which adipokine is decreased in obesity, is anti-inflammatory, and increases insulin sensitivity? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Adiponectin is a protective cytokine. This cytokine is anti-inflammatory and increases insulin sensitivity. Adiponectin is usually decreased in obesity. Distinguishing characteristics of Mycobacterium fortuitum: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Mycobacterium fortuitum is positive for iron uptake, nitrate, arysulfatase, and growth on MacConkey agar without crystal violet in five days.
CD5 antigen is normally found on which of the following lymphocyte populations? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Mature T cells Define: Congestive heart failure ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A left ventricular dysfunction resulting from aging, hypertension, atherosclerosis or muscle damage from an AMI or repeated AMIs. Define infarction: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------An area of tissue death that occurs due to lack of oxygen. Define: Ischemia ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------An inadequate blood supply that decreases availability of oxygen. Define: Angina ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Chest pain caused by inadequate supply of oxygen to heart myocardium. Which of the following antigen groups is closely related to the ABO antigens on the red cell membrane? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------I and i antigens are related biochemically and spatially to the ABH and Lewis antigens on the red cell membrane. Anti-I is usually an autoantibody. It is common as a benign cold autoagglutinin. Strong anti-I is associated with Mycoplasma pneumonia infection, where it may be associated with cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia. Anti-I is
Immature erythrocytes, or reticulocytes, contain nuclear remnants of RNA. To detect the presence of this RNA, the red cells must be stained while they are still living, in a process called supravital staining. With supravital staining, the RNA appears as a reticulum within the red cell. Multiple ring forms are most frequently seen in which Plasmodium? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------falciparum Multiple ring forms are most frequently seen in Plasmodium falciparum. The trophozoite develops into a schizont made up of multiple ring forms (also known as merozoites) via schizogony, or asexual replication. The schizont then matures which causes the rupture of the erythrocytes- releasing merozoites into the circulation which in turn infect other erythrocytes Define Acute phase proteins: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- What percentage of dietary iron is normally absorbed daily? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------5% to 15% A patient experiences a mild allergic reaction to a transfusion, including urticaria, erythema (skin redness), and itching. What is the most likely source of the allergen? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Plasma proteins
Mild allergic reactions result from a patient's hypersensitivity to soluble allergens in the plasma of the donor unit. The blood recipient forms antibodies to these allergens that are bound to IgE on mast cells and cause the release of histamines. Allergen substances may be drugs or food consumed by the blood donor. Contact dermatitis is mediated by: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------T lymphocytes Diagnosis of Diabetes: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------A random glucose concentration greater than 200 mg/dL, with classical signs and symptoms of diabetes A fasting glucose concentration greater than 126 mg/dL on more than one occasion. An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), in which the glucose concentration is greater than 200 mg/dL 2 hours after a standard carbohydrate load. Patients with Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia demonstrate excessively increased concentrations of which of the following? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----- ------------IgM
B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes are derived from: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----- ------------Hematopoietic stem cells Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores: - --------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Ferritin (storage form of iron) If a bacteria produces the enzyme tryptophanase to break down the amino acid tryptophan, which of the following tests will be positive with Kovacs reagent? ----- ----CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Indole test Ringed sideroblast: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Basophiles Dolichos biflorus: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Anti-A1 lectin is extracted from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus. This reagent will agglutinate A1 cells, but not A2 cells
Myelodysplastic syndromes can Best be described as: ---------CORRECT ANSWER--- --------------A qualitative disorder of erythroid, myeloid and/ or megakaryoctic cell series Thyroid Disorders: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- FAB M5: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Acute monoblastic leukemia FAB M1: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Acute myeloblastic leukemia without maturaation FAB M3: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Acute Promyelocytic leukemia FAB M4: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Acute myelomonocytic leukemia Criteria for blood donation (Age, hematocrit, blood pressure, pulse and temperature): ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------17, 35%, no greater than 180/100, 50-100 beats per minutes and not greater than 99.5 degrees
Iron deficiency anemia: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- Dubin-Johnson Syndrome: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------An autosomal recessive disorder that causes an increase of conjugated bilirubin without elevation of liver enzymes (ALT, AST) Crigler-Najjar syndrome: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Associated with increased levelss of bilirubin in the blood as teh disorder affect the etabolism of bilirubin Gilbert's syndrome: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Causes an otherwise harmless jaundice, which does not require treatment, caused by hyperbilirubinemia Distingush between Pappenheimer bodies an Howell-Jolly bodies: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Prussian blue stain would help differentiate between the two. Prussian blue stains iron. Pappenheimer bodies, which contain iron, will stain blue. Howell-Jolly bodies will not stain with Prussian blue because they do no contain iron. Both Howell-Jolly bodies and Pappenheimer bodies will stain with Wright-Giemsa stain.
Symptomes of Acute leukemia: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Acute leukemia is associated with bone pain, hepatosplenomegaly, and swollen lymph nodes. In addition, infections (causing fevers) and bleeding are common. A high white blood cell count with man blasts in the peripheral blood and bone marrow, along with a low platelet and rbc count are also highly associated with this condition. Differentiate between group D streptococcus, Group D enterococcus, Group B strep and Group A: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Group D streptococcus (bile esculin +, 6.5% NaCl - , PYR - ) Group D enterococcus (bile esculin +, 6.5% NaCl +, PYR +) Group B strep (bile esculin - , 6.5% NaCl variable, PYR - ) Group A strep is beta hemolytic Sudan II will confirm the presence of: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Fat How much does 1 unit of red blood cells raise the hemoglobin? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------One unit of RBCs increases the hemoglobin level by approximately 1g/dL in an adult who is not actively bleeding and has no other predisposing factors that would shorten the survival of the transfused blood cells Alpha thalassemia Major: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------AKA as Hydrops Fetalis, is exhibited when all four alpha chain gene loci are deleted or non- functional. The alpha chain is crucial to the formation of hemoglobin variants that
Which of the following is a characteristic of Factor XII deficiency? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Negative bleeding history Patients with a deficiency of factor XII tend to have thrombotic complications. The do not have bleeding problems most likely due to the lack of activation of fibrin lysis, also due to pathway activation of IX by VIIa/TF complex as well as the activation of Factor XI by thrombin Heinz bodies are: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen. Urobilinogen is formed in the: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Intestine Causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Pericious anemia in relapse, Patients on chronic hemodialysis and hodgkin disease T lymphocytes that possess the CD8 surface marker mediate which of the following T-cell functions? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Cytotoxic T cells, which are capable of destroying targets such as tumor cells and virus-infected cells, bear the CD8 surface marker, while the other cell types listed ( delayed type hypersensitivity, regulatory and helper) are positive for the CD4 surface marker
Intrinsic Pathway: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Prekallikrein, heavy molecular weight kinogen, XII, XI, X, IX, VIII, V, II and I Measured by APTT Leukmoid Reaction: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- Vitamin K Factors: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------factors II (prothrombin), VII, IX and X. Anticoagulation proteins: proteins C, S Christmas Disease: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Deficiency in Factor IX Amorphous urates is found in: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------Acidic pH urine Amorphous phosphate crystals are found in: ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------------- --Amorphous phosphate, triple phosphate (ammonium magnesium phosphate), calcium phosphate, and ammonium urate crystals are frequently found in alkaline urine specimens
