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ASNT LEVEL III LATEST EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | LATEST
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CH1. 1 - Which of the following statements is true concerning the usage of SNT-TC-1A? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. SNT-TC-1A is not intended to be used as a strict specification CH1. 2 - The SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel will respond to inquiries about SNT-TC-1A. The inquiry muct be: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------- ---------A. written and stated in general terms CH1. 3 - Which of the following statements is true? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------B. SNT-TC-1A was first published in the late 1960s CH1. 4 - With regard to the training of NDT personnel, the employer: --------
- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. may engage an outside service but is, nevertheless, responsible for the certification of the company's NDT personnel CH1. 5 - SNT-TC-1A is intended as a guideline for employers: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------B. to establish their own written practice for the qualification and certification of their NDT personnel CH1. 6 - The following is a statement in SNT-TC-1A: "It is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain employers, circumstances, and/or applications." What should be done if the guidelines are not appropriate? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------C. The
employer should review the detailed recommendations and modify them, as necessary, to meet its particular needs CH1. 7 - Which of the following statements is not true? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. A certifying agency is any organization used by an employer in training NDT personnel CH1. 8 - Who should be responsible to asses whether or not an individual should be qualified and certified who does not perform NDT, but monitors and evaluates NDT? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------B. The individual's employer CH1. 9 - To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-1A currently not applicable? - --------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------D. Holographic testing CH1. 10 - ASNT intended that the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A be applied: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. with flexibility and reason CH1. 11 - Of the following, which is most appropriate to determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel whose only NDT function is to operate digital thickness equipment? ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------ -----c. The employer CH1. 12 - Certification is: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. written testimony of qualification
CH1. 19 - May a Level I independently perform, evaluate, and sign for results of nondestructive tests with supervision and guidance from a Level II or III? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. Yes, the intent in SNT- TC-1A is that the Level I may perform the above functions provided that they are in accordance with written instructions of a Level II or III CH1. 20 - Which of the following statements is true concerning the definitions of Trainee, Level I, II and III in SNT-TC-1A? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed those of Level II CH1. 21 - Which of the following is not within the scope of activities of a Level II individual, as recommended in SNT-TC-1A? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. Establish techniques CH1. 22 - As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, a Level II: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. may conduct on-the-job training and guidance of Level I personnel CH1. 23 - According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true for a Level III? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. The Level III shall be capable of evaluating test results in terms of codes, standards, and specifications CH1. 24 - In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, who is responsible for establishing a written practice for the control and administration of NDT personnel training, examination, and certification? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. The employer
CH1. 25 - The responsibility of each level of certification for determining the acceptability of materials or components: ---------CORRECT ANSWER------- ----------c. should be described in the employer's written practice under all circumstances CH1. 26 - What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in NDT understands the principles and procedures involved? --- ------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. Training, experience, and education CH1. 27 - As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true? - --------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. SNT-TC-1A does not currently provide a recommendation regarding overtime CH1. 28 - High school education is recommended as a minimum requirement for: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. none of the levels CH1. 29 - In Leak Testing, recommended work time experience and training: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. differs for each of four major techniques CH1. 30 - It is recommended that the education and experience of a Level III candidate include: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. graduation from a 4-year university or college with a degree in engineering or science plus 1 year's experience in NDT comparable to that of a Level II
CH1. 38 - The recommended training course outline includes: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. technical principles of the method CH1. 39 - In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, the NDT Level III should be responsible for: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. all questions to be used on examinations for Level I and Level II CH1. 40 - Which of the following may conduct and grade examinations for Level I and Level II personnel? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. A qualified representative of the NDT Level III CH1. 41 - How often should the near-vision acuity examination be administered? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. Annually CH1. 42 - As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, physical examination requirements are intended to be: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- c. related to each employer's specific needs CH1. 43 - The General Examination is intended to cover: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. basic test principles of the method CH1. 44 - Questions and answers available from ASNT are intended for use in compiling: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. the General, Basic, and Method examinations
CH1. 45 - Which of the following parts of Level I and Level II examinations should be written? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. The General and Specific CH1. 46 - The Practical Examination is recommended to include operational familiarity with test equipment and analysis of test results for: --- ------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. Levels I and II CH1. 47 - Which of the following statements is true with regard to the administration of written examinations? ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------- --------d. Codes, specifications, and procedures may be provided to examinees for reference during examinations provided that they do not contain data that can be used to answer questions in the General Examination CH1. 48 - For the written examinations, tables, graphs, and charts may be used: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. during all examinations CH1. 49 - For Level I and Level II Practical Examinations, one or more test specimens are recommended, and the examinee should perform tests and evaluations using the appropriate equipment and test specimens. The minimum number of different checkpoints recommended is: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. 10 CH1. 50 - In certification of Level III personnel according to the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, the employer: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. may delete the Specific Examination
CH1. 57 - Which of the following statements is true concerning recertification? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. Recertification can be based upon evidence of continuing satisfactory performance CH1. 58 - Automatic termination of certification is recommended when the certified individual: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. terminates employment with the employer where certified CH1. 59 - A certified Level III individual terminates his or her employment with employer A and is immediately employed by employer B. Employer B may certify the individual as Level III based upon which of the following? --- ------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. The employer must examine the individual CH2. 1 - In accordance with CP-189 (2016), an NDT Level III: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. must approve all questions to be used on examinations for Level I and Level II CH2. 2 - Which of the following is true regarding NDT Level III Practical Examinations? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. the exam administrator must hold a valid ASNT Level III certification in the applicable test method CH2. 3 - When the near-distance vision acuity examination is given using a jaeger reading card, it must be given: ---------CORRECT ANSWER------------ -----a. in accordance with a procedure
CH2. 4 - As required in CP-189, Level I Practical examinations are intended to be: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. given using one or more test samples for each technique CH2. 5 - The Practical Examination shall address the technical and practical competency of the examinee when following prepared NDT procedures for: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. Levels I and II CH3. 1 - ASNT NDT Level III certification is a requirement of: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. CP- 189 CH3. 2 - A currently valid ASNT NDT Level III certificate indicates: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. that the certificate holder has satisfied the Basic and Method exam requirements as set forth in SNT-TC-1A CH3. 3 - ASNT NDT Level III certification: ---------CORRECT ANSWER------ -----------c. makes an individual potentially eligible to become an employer's Level III CH3. 4 - The ASNT NDT Level III Basic Examination covers all of the following except: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. knowledge of international certification programs CH3. 5 - To recertify by application, an ADNT NDT Level III must: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. demonstrate continued NDT activity and Level III employment
CH4 (AE). 7 - The term "counts" refers to the: ---------CORRECT ANSWER- ----------------a. number of times a signal crosses a preset threshold CH4 (AE). 8 - The acoustic emission signal amplitude is related to: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. the intensity of the source CH4 (AE). 9 - Threshold settings are determined by the: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. background noise level CH4 (AE). 10 - Background noise can be reduced by: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. electronic filtering CH4 (ET). 1 - Eddy currents are circulating electrical currents induced in conductive materials by: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. an altering magnetic field CH4 (ET). 2 - The method used to generate eddy currents in a test specimen by means of a coil can most closely be compared with the action of a: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. transformer CH4 (ET). 3 - Electromagnetic testing relies on the principle of: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. electromagnetic induction
CH4 (ET). 4 - When the electrical current in an eddy current coil reverses direction, the: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. direction of the eddy currents in the test part also reverses CH4 (ET). 5 - In order to generate measurable eddy currents in a test specimen, the specimen must be: ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------
- a. an electrical conductor CH4 (ET). 6 - The magnetic field generated by eddy currents induced in a test specimen: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. opposes the magnetic field that induced the eddy currents CH4 (ET). 7 - In electromagnetic testing, IACS is a recognized abbreviation for: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. International Annealed Copper Standard CH4 (ET). 8 - In electromagnetic testing, the specimen is coupled to the test coil by: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. the coil's electromagnetic fields CH4 (ET). 9 - The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive material is decreased when the: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. test frequency, conductivity of the specimen, or permeability of the specimen is increased CH4 (ET). 10 - At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following materials will the eddy current penetration be greatest? ---------CORRECT ANSWER- ----------------d. Lead (7% IACS conductivity)
CH4 (ET). 17 - The term "fill factor" applies to: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------c. an encircling coil CH4 (ET). 18 - Which of the following materials would be more likely used as a mounting material for a probe coil? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-------- ---------b. Plastic CH4 (ET). 19 - Which of the following is not a commonly used eddy current testing read-out mechanism? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. Signal generator CH4 (ET). 20 - Reference standards used for electromagnetic testing: ------- --CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. must be constructed from the same material of the object being inspected CH4 (ET). 21 - Which of the following conditions is not important when selecting specimens to be used as reference standards? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. If the material is aluminum, the surface should be anodized CH4 (ET). 22 - Which of the following conditions would be the most difficult to detect when testing a rod using an encircling coil? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. A small inclusion in the center of the rod
CH4 (ET). 23 - The thickness of nonconductive coatings on a conductive base can be most simply measured by: ---------CORRECT ANSWER--------- --------a. observing the liftoff effect caused by the coating CH4 (ET). 24 - Some of the products commonly tested using encircling coils are: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. rods, tubes, and wire CH4 (ET). 25 - It is often possible to sort various alloys of a nonmagnetic metal by means of an electromagnetic test when: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. there is a unique range of conductivity values for each alloy CH4 (ET). 26 - When conducting electromagnetic testing on tubing with a system that includes a frequency discriminating circuit, which of the following variables would be classified as a high-frequency variable? --------
- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. Small discontinuities CH4 (ET). 27 - Which of the following is not a candidate for testing by the electromagnetic testing method? ---------CORRECT ANSWER----------------- a. A 102 mm (4 in.) thick plate to be tested for discontinuities throughout the plate CH4 (LT). 1 - Which of the following systems or components are not good candidates for leak testing? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. Sintered material components
procedure were capable of detecting leakage of a certain size during the test CH4 (LT). 9 - All leak detection techniques are dependent upon: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. gas or fluid flow CH4 (LT). 10 - In an evacuated system, sensitivity of a pressure change leak test is dependent not only on the pressure change observed, but also on the degree of outgassing. Outgassing is best defined as: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. the release of gas from materials in a vacuum CH4 (PT). 1 - The tendency of a liquid penetrant to enter a discontinuity is primarily related to: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. capillary forces CH4 (PT). 2 - Liquid penetrant testing is a nondestructive method that can be used for: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. locating discontinuities open to the surface CH4 (PT). 3 - Which of the following is not a characteristic that applies to liquid penetrant testing? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. This method can accurately measure the depth of a crack or discontinuity CH4 (PT). 4 - The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to emit light in the range of wavelengths different from the wavelength of light that excites the emission is called: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. fluorescence
CH4 (PT). 5 - When using a fluorescent, post-emulsifier penetrant, the length of time the emulsifier is allowed to remain on the part is critical for detecting shallow discontinuities. The optimum length of time should be: ---- -----CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. determined by experimentation CH4 (PT). 6 - A red penetrant indication against white background is most likely to be seen when: ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. visible dye penetrants are used CH4 (PT). 7 - The most widely accepted method for removing excessive water-washable penetrant from the surface of a test specimen is by: --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------b. using a water spray rinse CH4 (PT). 8 - Which of the following penetrant systems is generally considered the least sensitive? ---------CORRECT ANSWER-----------------a. Water-washable; visible dye CH4 (PT). 9 - When performing a liquid penetrant test using solvent- removable visible dye penetrant, there are several ways to remove excess penetrant from the surface of the part. Which of the methods listed below is generally regarded as most suitable for giving accurate test results? --------- CORRECT ANSWER-----------------d. Wiping with dry wipes, then wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, and finally wiping with a dry cloth CH4 (PT). 10 - A problem with retesting a specimen that has been previously tested using liquid penetrant is that the: ---------CORRECT
