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ATI MED SURG EXAM 2025 (CARDIOVASCULAR, IMMUNE & INFECTION, AND ONCOLOGY) | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS | LATEST EXAM | GRADED A+ (JUST RELEASED) A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as atrial flutter? A. P waves occurring at 0.16 sec before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern - CORRECT ANSWER >>>B. the nurse should interpret this finding as atrial flutter, which indicates a lack o fconduction between the atria and ventricles. The additional atrial beats are not conducting.
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A nurse on a telemetry unit is caring for a client who has an irregular radial pulse. Which of the following ECG abnormalities should the nurse recognize as atrial flutter? A. P waves occurring at 0.16 sec before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern **- CORRECT ANSWER
** B. the nurse should interpret this finding as atrial flutter, which indicates a lack o fconduction between the atria and ventricles. The additional atrial beats are not conducting. Which one of these rhythms indicates ventricular tachycardia? A. P waves occurring at 0.16 sec before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern **- CORRECT ANSWER ** D Which one of the following rates indicates normal sinus rhythm? A. P waves occurring at 0.16 sec before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min
C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A Which one of the following indicates a PVC? A. P waves occurring at 0.16 sec before each QRS complex B. Atrial rate of 300/min with QRS complex of 80/min C. Ventricular rate of 82/min with an atrial rate of 80/min D. An irregular ventricular rate of 125/min with a wide QRS pattern - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of aplastic anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Plethoric appearance of facial skin B. Glossitis and weight loss C. Jaundice and an enlarged liver D. Petechiae and ecchymosis - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D. the client who has aplastic anemia will have these manifestations. Dyspnea on exertion can also be present. In aplastic anemia, all 3 major blood components (RBC, WBC, platelets) are reduced or absent, known as pancytopenia. Manifestations usually develop gradually. Which one of the following choices are manifestations of pernicious anemia? A. Plethoric appearance of facial skin B. Glossitis and weight loss C. Jaundice and an enlarged liver D. Petechiae and ecchymosis - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B Which one of the following choices are manifestations of sickle cell anemia? A. Plethoric appearance of facial skin
A nurse is assessing a client who has pericarditis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? A. Bradycardia with S-T segment depression B. Relief of chest pain with deep inspiration. C. Dyspnea with hiccups D. Chest pain that increases when sitting upright. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. A client with pericarditis will experience dyspnea, hiccups, and a nonproductive cough. These manifestations can indicate heart failure from pericardial compression due to constrictive pericarditis or cardiac tamponade. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has anemia and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. hospitalization is required when administering each treatment. B. The maximum effect of the medication will occur in 6 months C. Hypertension is a common adverse effect of this medication. D. Blood transfusions are needed with each treatment. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. Hypertension is a common adverse effect of epoetin alfa because of the rise in production of erythrocytes and other RBC types. Epoetin alfa is a synthetic version of human erythropoeitin. Epoetin alfa is self-administered at home and the effects will occur in 2-3 months. A nurse is reviewing a client's repeat laboratory results 4 hours after administering FFP. Which of the following lab results should the nurse review? A. Prothrombin time B. WBC count C. Platelet count D. Hematocrit - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A.
FFP is rich in clotting factors and is administered to treat acute clotting disorders. The desired effect is a decreased prothrombin time. A nurse is assessing a client who has fluid volume overload from a cardiovascular disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? (SATA) A. Jugular vein distension B. Moist crackles C. Postural hypotension D. Increased HR E. Fever - CORRECT ANSWER >>> ABD A nurse is monitoring a client who had a myocardial infarction. For which of the following complications should the nurse monitor in the first 24 hr? A. Infective endocarditis. B. Pericarditis C. Ventricular Dysrhythmias D. Pulmonary Emboli - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. After an MI, the electrical conduction system of the heart can be irritable and prone to dysrhythmias. Ischemic tissue caused by the infarction can also interfere with the normal conduction patterns of the heart's electrical system. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pernicious anemia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? A. Administer ferrous sulfate B. Increase dietary intake of folic acid. C. Initiate weekly vitamin B12 injections.
A client who has cardiac tamponade will have hypertension because of the sudden decrease in cardiac output from the fluid compressing the atria and the ventricles. Heart sounds will be muffled. A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barre syndrome. WHich of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Tonic clonic seizures B. Report of a severe headache C. Weakness of the lower extremities D. Decreased level of consciousness - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. Guillain-Barre syndrome is also called inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy. This is an inflammatory disorder of the peripheral nerves. It is characterized by the rapid onset of ascending weakness and paralysis, starting at the lower extremities, and can advance to the upper extremities. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of acute angle-closure glaucoma. The nurse should anticipate the client to report which of the following manifestations? A. Multiple floaters B. Flashes of light in front of the eye C. Severe eye pain D. Double vision - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. Other manifestations can include report of halos around lights, blurred vision, headache, brow pain, and nausea and vomiting. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of a detached retina. The nurse should anticipate the client to report which of the following manifestations? (SATA) A. Multiple floaters B. Flashes of light in front of the eye C. Severe eye pain
D. Double vision - CORRECT ANSWER >>> AB Double vision is a manifestation of multiple sclerosis. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of mastoiditis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? A. Swelling behind the affected ear B. Facial drooping on the affected side C. Nystagmus on the affected side D. Pearly gray color of the affected eardrum - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A. Mastoiditis refers to inflammation of the temporal bone behind the ear. A red, thick eardrum is also a manifestation of mastoiditis. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new diagnosis of labyrinthitis. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect? A. Swelling behind the affected ear B. Facial drooping on the affected side C. Nystagmus on the affected side D. Pearly gray color of the affected eardrum - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C Bilateral nystagmus can be a manifestation of labyrinthitis A nurse is assessing a client who is postop following a craniotomy and has a urine output of 600 mL/hr. The nurse suspects the client has manifestations of diabetes insipidus. Which of the following lab values should be assessed for DI? A. BUN
A. Tachycardia B. Bradycardia C. Flushing of face and neck D. Pallor E. Extreme hypertensiom F. Extreme hypotension - CORRECT ANSWER >>> BCE A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of Maniere's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Avoid bearing down B. Increase caffeine intake C. Avoid sudden movements D. Increase sodium intake - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. This is a disorder of the inner ear affecting balance and hearing, characterized by vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid sudden movements. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new diagnosis of primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? (SATA). A. Lost vision can improve with eye drops B. Administer eye drops as needed for vision loss C. Glasses will be necessary to correct the accompanying presbyopia D. Driving can be dangerous due to the loss of peripheral vision E. Laser surgery can help reestablish the flow or aqueous humor. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> DE Damage to the optic nerve that occurs secondary to increased intraocular pressure causes a decrease in peripheral vision and can cause complete vision loss if not treated. Laser surgery can reopen the trabecular meshwork and widen the canal of schlemm.
Eyedrops should be administered on a regular schedule, and prevent further vision loss but don't improve current vision loss. A nurse in the emergency room is assessing a client for a closed pneumothorax and significant bruising of the left chest following a motor vehicle accident. The client reports severe left chest pain on inspiration. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following manifestations of pneumothorax? A. Absence of breath sounds B. Expiratory wheezing C. Inspiratory stridor. D. Rhonchi - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A During an asthma attack, a client will experience which kind of manifestations? A. Absence of breath sounds B. Expiratory wheezing C. Inspiratory stridor. D. Rhonchi - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B When a client has an airway obstruction, which of the following lung sounds will be heard? A. Absence of breath sounds B. Expiratory wheezing C. Inspiratory stridor. D. Rhonchi - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. A loud crowing-like sound often able to be heard without a stethoscope.
A nurse is preparing to administer capecitabine IV to a client who has breast cancer. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings is an adverse effect of the medication? A. Hallucinations B. Pruritis C. Hand and foot syndrome D. Tinnitus - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C __________ measures the amount of air the lungs can hold after maximum inhalation. A. Total lung capacity B. Vital lung capacity C. Functional residual capacity D. Residual volume - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A __________ measures the amount of air a client can exhale after maximum inhalation. A. Total lung capacity B. Vital lung capacity C. Functional residual capacity D. Residual volume - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B __________ measures the amount of air in the lungs after normal expiration. A. Total lung capacity B. Vital lung capacity C. Functional residual capacity D. Residual volume - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C
___________ measures the amount of air in the lungs after forced expiration. A. Total lung capacity B. Vital lung capacity C. Functional residual capacity D. Residual volume - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D A client who has ARDS will exhibit which of the following? (SATA) A. PaO2 50 mm Hg B. Rhonchi C. Hypopnea D. Hyperpnea - CORRECT ANSWER >>> AD A nurse on a medical surgical unit is caring for a client who is postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. The client reports feeling apprehensive and restless. Which of the following findings is an indication of pulmonary embolism? A. Sudden onset of dyspnea B. Tracheal deviation C. Bradycardia D. Wheezing - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A Dyspnea occurs due to reduced blood flow to the lungs Tachycardia, not bradycardia, is a seen in patients with pulmonary embolisms. Tracheal deviation is seen in patietns with pneumothorax
A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who states he was recently exposed to tuberculosis. Which of the following findings is a clinical manifestation of pulmonary tuberculosis? A. Pericardial friction rub B. Weight gain C. Night sweats D. Cyanosis of the fingertips - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. Night sweats and fevers. Anorexia and weight loss are clinical manifestations of TB A nurse is teaching a client with HIV about the early manifestations of AIDS. WHich of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You can expect a persistent fever and swollen glands." B. "You can expect an elevated WBC count." C. "You can expect an increase in BP and edema." D. "You can expect weight gain." - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A. Clients who have AIDS can have persistent fever, swollen glands, diarrhea, weight loss, and fatigue. Clients with AIDS are more likely to have a decreased WBC count due to the destroyed CD4-T cells. Clients with AIDS experience hypotension due to adrenal insufficiency. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I am unable to donate blood." B. "I will need to get a booster shot of immune serum globulin every year." C. "I should stop eating raw clams."
D. "I can get this disease by getting a tattoo." - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. Hep A is transmittted via the fecal-oral route through consumption of contaminated fruits, vegetables, water, milk, uncooked shellfish. Hep B is transmitted through needles. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. The nurse should anticipate that the client's affected joints will require which of the following treatments? A. AN assistive device to use when the client is ambulating. B. Heat paraffin therapy applied to the client's joints. C. Gentle massage of the client's hands D. Active range of motion exercises on the client's affected joints. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B. The elevated ESR indicates an acute inflammatory process due to the client's rheumatoid arthritis. The use of warm paraffin relieves the stiffness of the client's joints and provides comfort. Massage direclty on the joints can cause aggravation. Passive or isometric exercises are preferred over active range of motion exercises. A nurse in a provider's office is providing teaching to a client who has a recent diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis and has a new prescription for naproxen tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates further teaching is needed? A. "This medication will take 4 weeks for me to notice relief in my joints." B. "I can take an antacid with this medication for indigestion." C. "I can take this medication with aspirin." D. "The naproxen gets down easier when I crush it and put it in applesauce." - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C. Avoid taking this medication with other NSAIDs because it can increase the risk for bleeding and GI ulceration.
D. Apply a warm compress to the lesions. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D. The client should take 3-4 sitz baths per day to relieve discomfort, avoid sexual acitivty when lesions are present, and use a mild soap to clean lesions then pat dry. A nurse is monitoring a client who has active pulmonary TB and was placed on airborne precautions. This client is scheduled for a chest x-ray. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Have the client wear a surgical mask. B. Wear a gown for protection from the client's infection. C. Ask the radiology staff to perform a portable Chest X ray in the client's room. D. Place an N95 respirator on the client. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A. A nurse is assessing a client who has systemic scleroderma. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Excessive salivation B. Finger contractures C. Periorbital edema D. Alopecia - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B Scleroderma is a chronic disease that can cause thickening, hardening, or tightening of the skin, blood vessels, and internal organs. Manifestations include Raynaud's syndrome, muscle weakness, arthritis, dry mucous membranes. Contractures develop with advanced systemic scleroderma unless a client follows a regimen of range of motion and muscle-strengthening exercises. A nurse is assessing a client who has Kaposi's sarcoma. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. A nonproductive cough, fever, and shortness of breath B. Lesions on the retina that produce blurred vision.
C. Onset of progressive dementia D. Reddish-purple skin lesions. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> D. Kaposi's sarcoma is commonly associated with AIDS and manifests as hyperpigmented lesions that can be firm, flat, raised, or nodular. A nurse is assessing a client who has an exacerbation of herpes zoster. Which of the following manifestations of the client's skin should the nurse expect? A. confluent, honey-colored crusted lesions. B. Large, tender nodule located on a hair follicle. C. Unilateral, localized, nodular skin lesions. D. A fluid-filled vesicular rash in the genital region. - CORRECT ANSWER >>> C A nurse is teaching a client about their diagnosis of systemis lupus erythematosus (SLE) about factors that can trigger an exacerbation of SLE. THe nurse should determine that the client needs more teaching when she identifies which of the following as a factor that can exacerbate SLE? A. Exercise B. Pregnancy C. Infection D. Sunlight - CORRECT ANSWER >>> A Which type of skin cancer is the most serious? A. Basal cell carcinomas B. Melanomas C. Actinic keratoses D. Squamous cell carinomas - CORRECT ANSWER >>> B