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ATI OB MATERNAL NEWBORN
PROCTORED (NEW UPDATED
VERSION) EXAM LATEST REAL
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADE A
A pregnant woman’s diet consists almost entirely of whole grain breads and cereals, fruits, and vegetables. Which dietary requirement is the nurse most concerned about? a. Calcium b. Protein c. Vitamin B d. Folic acid c. Vitamin B Vegans consume only plant products. Because vitamin B12 is found in foods of animal origin, this diet is deficient in vitamin B12. A 27-year-old pregnant woman had a preconceptual body mass index (BMI) of 19. What is this clients total recommended weight gain during pregnancy? a. 20 kg (44 lb) b. 16 kg (35 lb) c. 12.5 kg (27.5 lb) d. 10 kg (22 lb) c. 12.5 kg (27.5 lb)
A woman has come to the clinic for preconception counseling because she wants to start trying to get pregnant. Which guidance should she expect to receive? a. Discontinue all contraception now. b. Lose weight so that you can gain more during pregnancy. c. You may take any medications you have been regularly taking. d. Make sure you include adequate folic acid in your diet. d. Make sure you include adequate folic acid in your diet. To prevent gastrointestinal (GI) upset, when should a pregnant client be instructed to take the recommended iron supplements? a. On a full stomach b. At bedtime c. After eating a meal d. With milk b. At bedtime After the nurse completes nutritional counseling for a pregnant woman, she asks the client to repeat the instructions to assess the clients understanding. Which statement indicates that the client understands the role of protein in her pregnancy? a. Protein will help my baby grow. b. Eating protein will prevent me from becoming anemic. c. Eating protein will make my baby have strong teeth after he is born. d. Eating protein will prevent me from being diabetic. a. Protein will help my baby grow. An adequate protein intake is essential to meeting the increasing demands of pregnancy. These demands arise from the rapid growth of the
a. Canned white tuna is a preferred choice. b. Shark, swordfish, and mackerel should be avoided. c. Fish caught in local waterways is the safest. d. Salmon and shrimp contain high levels of mercury. b. Shark, swordfish, and mackerel should be avoided. 12oz/week okay of mercury - shrimp, light tuna, salmon, lobster, tilapia A woman in the 34th week of pregnancy reports that she is very uncomfortable because of heartburn. Which recommendation would be appropriate for this client? a. Substitute other calcium sources for milk in her diet. b. Lie down after each meal. c. Reduce the amount of fiber she consumes. d. Eat five small meals daily. d. Eat five small meals daily. Which information regarding protein in the diet of a pregnant woman is most helpful to the client? a. Many protein-rich foods are also good sources of calcium, iron, and B vitamins. b. Many women need to increase their protein intake during pregnancy. c. As with carbohydrates and fat, no specific recommendations exist for the amount of protein in the diet. d. High-protein supplements can be used without risk by women on macrobiotic diets.
a. Many protein-rich foods are also good sources of calcium, iron, and B vitamins. A client states that she plans to breastfeed her newborn infant. What guidance would be useful for this new mother? a. The mothers intake of vitamin C, zinc, and protein can now be lower than during pregnancy. b. Caffeine consumed by the mother accumulates in the infant, who may be unusually active and wakeful. c. Critical iron and folic acid levels must be maintained. d. Lactating women can go back to their prepregnant caloric intake. b. Caffeine consumed by the mother accumulates in the infant, who may be unusually active and wakeful. Which pregnant woman should strictly follow weight gain recommendations during pregnancy? a. Pregnant with twins b. In early adolescence c. Shorter than 62 inches or 157 cm d. Was 20 pounds overweight before pregnancy d. Was 20 pounds overweight before pregnancy A pregnant womans diet may not meet her increased need for folates. Which food is a rich source of this nutrient? a. Chicken b. Cheese c. Potatoes d. Green leafy vegetables d. Green leafy vegetables
C. This weight gain cannot be evaluated until the woman has been observed for several more weeks. D. The woman's weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy. D. The woman's weight gain is appropriate for this stage of pregnancy. Which suggestions should the nurse include when teaching about appropriate weight gain in pregnancy? (Select all that apply.) A. Underweight women should gain 12.5 to 18 kg. B. Obese women should gain at least 7 to 11.5 kg. C. Adolescents are encouraged to strive for weight gains at the upper end of the recommended scale. D. In twin gestations, the weight gain recommended for a single fetus pregnancy should simply be doubled. E. Normal weight women should gain 11.5 to 16 kg. A. Underweight women should gain 12.5 to 18 kg. B. Obese women should gain at least 7 to 11.5 kg. C. Adolescents are encouraged to strive for weight gains at the upper end of the recommended scale. E. Normal weight women should gain 11.5 to 16 kg. "Infection that can occur as a result of consuming certain foods such as unpasteurized milk or products made with unpasteurized milk, raw fish or seafood, raw dough or batter, and unpasteurized juice; it increases the risk for miscarriage, premature birth, and stillbirth." "Listeriosis" A woman arrives at the clinic for a pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period (LMP) was February 14, 2015. What is the clients expected date of birth (EDB)?
a. September 17, 2015 b. November 7, 2015 c. November 21, 2015 d. December 17, 2015 c. November 21, 2015 Which sign or symptom is considered a first-trimester warning sign and should be immediately reported by the pregnant woman to her health care provider? a. Nausea with occasional vomiting b. Fatigue c. Urinary frequency d. Vaginal bleeding d. Vaginal bleeding Which client might be well advised to continue condom use during intercourse throughout her pregnancy? a. Unmarried pregnant women b. Women at risk for acquiring or transmitting STIs c. All pregnant women d. Women at risk for candidiasis b. Women at risk for acquiring or transmitting STIs During the first trimester, which of the following changes regarding her sexual drive should a client be taught to expect? a. Increased sexual drive, because of enlarging breasts b. Decreased sexual drive, because of nausea and fatigue c. No change in her sexual drive d. Increased sexual drive, because of increased levels of female hormones
c. Have the patient lie supine for 5 minutes, and then recheck her BP on both arms. d. Have the patient turn to her left side, and then recheck her BP in 5 minutes. d. Have the patient turn to her left side, and then recheck her BP in 5 minutes. Which finding in a pregnant patient is associated with an increased risk for macrosomia in the neonate? A)Increased bilirubin levels B)Increased blood glucose levels C)Discontinued of folic acid supplementation D)Amphetamine (Adderall) use on a daily basis B)Increased blood glucose levels A womans obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time, and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation, and another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system? a. 3- 1 - 1 - 1 - 3 b. 4 - 1 - 2 - 0 - 4 c. 3 - 0 - 3 - 0 - 3 d. 4 - 2 - 1 - 0 - 3 b. 4- 1 - 2 - 0 - 4 Which presumptive sign or symptom of pregnancy would a client experience who is approximately 10 weeks of gestation? a. Amenorrhea b. Positive pregnancy test c. Chadwick sign
d. Hegar sign a. Amenorrhea Amenorrhea is a presumptive sign of pregnancy. Presumptive signs of pregnancy are those felt by the woman A 31-year-old woman believes that she may be pregnant. She took an over-the-counter (OTC) pregnancy test 1 week ago after missing her period; the test was positive. During her assessment interview, the nurse inquires about the womans last menstrual period and asks whether she is taking any medications. The client states that she takes medicine for epilepsy. She has been under considerable stress lately at work and has not been sleeping well. Her physical examination does not indicate that she is pregnant. She has an ultrasound scan, which confirms that she is not pregnant. What is the most likely cause of the false-positive pregnancy test result? a. The pregnancy test was taken too early. b. Anticonvulsant medications may cause the false-positive test result. c. The woman has a fibroid tumor. d. She has been under considerable stress and has a hormone imbalance. b. Anticonvulsant medications may cause the false-positive test result. Which clinical finding in a primiparous client at 32 weeks of gestation might be an indication of anemia? a. Ptyalism b. Pyrosis c. Pica d. Decreased peristalsis
A woman has chosen the calendar method of conception control. Which is the most important action the nurse should perform during the assessment process? a. Obtain a history of the womans menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. b. Determine the clients weight gain and loss pattern for the previous year. c. Examine skin pigmentation and hair texture for hormonal changes. d. Explore the clients previous experiences with conception control. a. Obtain a history of the womans menstrual cycle lengths for the past 6 to 12 months. A woman who has a seizure disorder and takes barbiturates and phenytoin sodium daily asks the nurse about the pill as a contraceptive choice. What is the nurses best response? a. Oral contraceptives are a highly effective method, but they have some side effects. b. Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill. c. Oral contraceptives will reduce the effectiveness of your seizure medication. d. The pill is a good choice for a woman of your age and with your personal history. b. Your current medications will reduce the effectiveness of the pill. A woman who has just undergone a first-trimester abortion will be using oral contraceptives. To protect against pregnancy, the client should be advised to do what? a. Avoid sexual contact for at least 10 days after starting the pill.
b. Use condoms and foam for the first few weeks as a backup. c. Use another method of contraception for 1 week after starting the pill. d. Begin sexual relations once vaginal bleeding has ended. c. Use another method of contraception for 1 week after starting the pill. Which client would be an ideal candidate for injectable progestins such as Depo-Provera(DMPA) as a contraceptive choice? a. The ideal candidate for DMPA wants menstrual regularity and predictability b. The client has a history of thrombotic problems or breast cancer. c. The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. d. The client is homeless or mobile and rarely receives health care. c. The ideal candidate has difficulty remembering to take oral contraceptives daily. A client currently uses a diaphragm and spermicide for contraception. She asks the nurse to explain the major differences between the cervical cap and the diaphragm. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? a. No spermicide is used with the cervical cap, so its less messy. b. The diaphragm can be left in place longer after intercourse. c. Repeated intercourse with the diaphragm is more convenient. d. The cervical cap can be safely used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later. d. The cervical cap can be safely used for repeated acts of intercourse without adding more spermicide later.
danger signs of TSS, including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4 C, hypotension, and a rash. b. You should remove your diaphragm right after intercourse to prevent TSS. c. Its okay to use your diaphragm during your menstrual cycle. Just be sure to wash it thoroughly first to prevent TSS. d. Make sure you dont leave your diaphragm in for longer than 24 hours, or you may get TSS. a. You should always remove your diaphragm 6 to 8 hours after intercourse. Dont use the diaphragm during menses, and watch for danger signs of TSS, including a sudden onset of fever over 38.4 C, hypotension, and a rash. Importantly, the nurse must be aware of which information related to the use of IUDs? a. Return to fertility can take several weeks after the device is removed. b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. c. IUDs offer the same protection against STIs as the diaphragm. d. Consent forms are not needed for IUD insertion. b. IUDs containing copper can provide an emergency contraception option if inserted within a few days of unprotected intercourse. What is the drug of choice for the treatment of gonorrhea? a. Penicillin G b. Tetracycline c. Ceftriaxone d. Acyclovir c. Ceftriaxone
Ceftriaxone is effective for the treatment of all gonococcal infections. A group of infections known collaboratively as TORCH infections are capable of crossing the placenta and causing serious prenatal effects on the fetus. Which infections are included in this group of organisms? (Select all that apply.) a. Toxoplasmosis b. Other infections c. Roseola d. Clostridium e. Herpes simplex a. Toxoplasmosis b. Other infections e. Herpes simplex A woman is using the basal body temperature (BBT) method of contraception. She calls the clinic and tells the nurse, My period is due in a few days, and my temperature has not gone up. What is the nurses most appropriate response? a. This probably means that youre pregnant. b. Dont worry; its probably nothing. c. Have you been sick this month? d. You probably didnt ovulate during this cycle. d. You probably didnt ovulate during this cycle. A woman in labor passes some thick meconium as her amniotic fluid ruptures. The client asks the nurse where the baby makes the meconium. What is the correct response by the nurse? a. Fetal intestines
c. The placenta provides oxygen to the baby and excretes carbon dioxide into your bloodstream. Which information regarding amniotic fluid is important for the nurse to understand? a. Amniotic fluid serves as a source of oral fluid and a repository for waste from the fetus b. Volume of the amniotic fluid remains approximately the same throughout the term of a healthy pregnancy. c. The study of fetal cells in amniotic fluid yields little information. d. A volume of more than 2 L of amniotic fluid is associated with fetal renal abnormalities. a. Amniotic fluid serves as a source of oral fluid and a repository for waste from the fetus Amniotic fluid serves as a source of oral fluid, serves as a repository for waste from the fetus, cushions the fetus, and helps maintain a constant body temperature. The nurse caring for a pregnant client is evaluating his or her health teaching regarding fetal circulation. Which statement from the client reassures the nurse that his or her teaching has been effective? a. Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when I am in the side-lying position. b. Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when I am on my back with a pillow under my knees. c. Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when the head of the bed is elevated.
d. Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when I am on my abdomen. a. Optimal fetal circulation is achieved when I am in the side-lying position. Side-lying is the ideal position to promote blood flow to the fetus.Previously, it was believed that the left lateral position promoted maternal cardiac output, enhancing blood flow to the fetus. However, it is now known that the side-lying position enhances uteroplacental blood flow. If a woman lies on her back with the pressure of the uterus compressing the vena cava, then blood return to the right atrium is diminished. Congenital disorders refer to those conditions that are present at birth. These disorders may be inherited and caused by environmental factors or maternal malnutrition. Toxic exposures have the greatest effect on development between 15 and 60 days of gestation. For the nurse to be able to conduct a complete assessment of the newly pregnant client, he or she should be knowledgeable regarding known human teratogens. Which substances might be considered a teratogen? (Select all that apply.) a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) b. Ionizing radiation c. Hypothermia d. Carbamazepine e. Lead a. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) b. Ionizing radiation d. Carbamazepine e. Lead
