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ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST BANK|ATI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2025-2026|245 Qs&As. A+, Exams of Pharmacology

ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST BANK|ATI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2025-2026|245 QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALE|A+ GRADED

Typology: Exams

2024/2025

Available from 06/17/2025

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ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST BANK|ATI
PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2025-2026|245 QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALE|A+ GRADED
1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's
serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to
administer as prescribed to the client?
1. Calcium chloride
2. Calcium gluconate
3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
4. Large doses of vitamin D
3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
Rationale:
The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing
hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the
treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcaemia. In hyperkalemia,
large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided.
Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone
resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration.
2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency
anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food
item?
1. Milk
2. Water
3. Apple juice
4. Orange juice
4.
Orange
juice
Rational
e:
Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be
instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in
vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption.
Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice.
3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse
monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of
systemic toxicity from this medication?
1. Tinnitus
2. Diarrhea
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Download ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST BANK|ATI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2025-2026|245 Qs&As. A+ and more Exams Pharmacology in PDF only on Docsity!

ATI PHARMACOLOGY PROCTORED EXAM TEST BANK|ATI

PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 202 5 - 2026|245 QUESTIONS WITH

CORRECT ANSWERS AND RATIONALE|A+ GRADED

  1. A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as prescribed to the client?
  1. Calcium chloride
  2. Calcium gluconate
  3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
  4. Large doses of vitamin D
  5. Calcitonin (Miacalcin) Rationale: The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing hyperkalemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcaemia. In hyperkalemia, large doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration. 2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6 - year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item?
  6. Milk
  7. Water
  8. Apple juice
  9. Orange juice

Orange juice Rational e: Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater amount of vitamin C than apple juice. 3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from this medication?

  1. Tinnitus
  2. Diarrhea
  1. Constipation
  2. Decreased respirations
  3. Tinnit us Rational e : Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result. Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism. 4.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when applied:
  4. Immediately before swimming
  5. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun
  6. Immediately before exposure to the sun
  7. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun Rationale: Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating. 5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
  8. Notifying the registered nurse
  9. Discontinuing the medication
  10. Informing the client that this is normal
  11. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site
  12. Informing the client that this is normal Rationale: Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction; therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect 6.) The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a systemic effect has occurred?
  13. Hyperventilation
  14. Elevated blood pressure
  1. Axilla
  2. Soles of the feet
  3. Palms of the hands
  4. Axill a Rational e: Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck, perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions in which permeability is poor (back, palms, soles). 10.) The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would suspect that the client is being treated for:
  5. Acne
  6. Eczema
  7. Hair loss
  8. Herpes simplex
  9. Acne Rational e: Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect. W 11.) The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a partial- thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments?
  10. "The medication is an antibacterial."
  11. "The medication will help heal the burn."
  12. "The medication will permanently stain my skin."
  13. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound."
  14. "The medication will permanently stain my skin." Rationale: Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against gram- negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin. 12.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate

of infusion of the medication has slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action?

  1. Notify the registered nurse.
  2. Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort.
  3. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed.
  4. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion.
  5. Notify the registered nurse. Rationale: When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administered via IV, great care must be taken to prevent the medication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the injection site, because pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for signs of extravasation, such as redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreased infusion rate. If extravasation occurs, the registered nurse needs to be notified; he or she will then contact the health care provider. 13.) The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously. The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?
  6. Echocardiography
  7. Electrocardiography
  8. Cervical radiography
  9. Pulmonary function studies
  10. Pulmonary function studies Rationale: Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication (Chemotheraputic Agents) that can cause interstitial pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with hematological, hepatic, and renal function tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles, which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The medication needs to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication. W 14.) The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?
  11. Clotting time
  12. Uric acid level
  13. Potassium level
  14. Blood glucose level
  15. Uric acid level Rationale: Busulfan (Myleran) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia
  1. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
  2. That it is not necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health fair
  3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations Rationale: Because antineoplastic medications lower the resistance of the body, clients must be informed not to receive immunizations without a HCP's approval. Clients also need to avoid contact with individuals who have recently received a live virus vaccine. Clients need to avoid aspirin and aspirin-containing products to minimize the risk of bleeding, and they need to avoid alcohol to minimize the risk of toxicity and side effects. 17.) The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this medication?
  4. Diarrhea
  5. Hair loss
  6. Chest pain
  7. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes
  8. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes Rationale: A side effect specific to vincristine is peripheral neuropathy, which occurs in almost every client. Peripheral neuropathy can be manifested as numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. Depression of the Achilles tendon reflex may be the first clinical sign indicating peripheral neuropathy. Constipation rather than diarrhea is most likely to occur with this medication, although diarrhea may occur occasionally. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications. Chest pain is unrelated to this medication. 18.) The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the registered nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented in the client's history?
  9. Pancreatitis
  10. Diabetes mellitus
  11. Myocardial infarction
  12. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  13. Pancreatit is Rationale: Asparaginase (Elspar) is contraindicated if hypersensitivity exists, in pancreatitis, or if the client has a history of pancreatitis. The medication impairs pancreatic function and pancreatic function tests should be performed before therapy begins and when a week or more has elapsed between administration of the doses. The client needs to be monitored for signs of pancreatitis, which include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The conditions noted in options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with this medication. W

19.) Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:

  1. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
  2. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
  3. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
  4. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.
  5. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Rationale: Tamoxifen is an antineoplastic medication that competes with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Tamoxifen is used to treat metastatic breast carcinoma in women and men. Tamoxifen is also effective in delaying the recurrence of cancer following mastectomy. Tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response. W 20.) The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
  6. Glucose level
  7. Calcium level
  8. Potassium level
  9. Prothrombin time
  10. Calcium level Rationale: Tamoxifen may increase calcium, cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. Before the initiation of therapy, a complete blood count, platelet count, and serum calcium levels should be assessed. These blood levels, along with cholesterol and triglyceride levels, should be monitored periodically during therapy. The nurse should assess for hypercalcemia while the client is taking this medication. Signs of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst, nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotonicity of muscles, and deep bone and flank pain. W 21.) A nurse is assisting with caring for a client with cancer who is receiving cisplatin. Select the adverse effects that the nurse monitors for that are associated with this medication. Select all that apply.
  11. Tinnitus
  12. Ototoxicity
  13. Hyperkalemia
  14. Hypercalcemia
  15. Nephrotoxicity
  16. Hypomagnesemia
  17. Tinnitus
  18. Ototoxicity
  19. Nephrotoxicity

Rationale: Cisplatin is an alkylating medication. Alkylating medications are cell cycle phase- nonspecific medications that affect the synthesis of DNA by causing the cross-linking of DNA to inhibit cell reproduction. Cisplatin may cause ototoxicity, tinnitus, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and nephrotoxicity. Amifostine (Ethyol) may be administered before cisplatin to reduce the potential for renal toxicity. W 22.) A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to:

  1. Treat thyroid storm.
  2. Prevent cardiac irritability.
  3. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
  4. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone.
  5. Treat hypocalcemic tetany. Rationale: Hypocalcemia can develop after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands are accidentally removed or injured during surgery. Manifestations develop 1 to 7 days after surgery. If the client develops numbness and tingling around the mouth, fingertips, or toes or muscle spasms or twitching, the health care provider is notified immediately. Calcium gluconate should be kept at the bedside. W 23.) A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for discharge?
  6. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times.
  7. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
  8. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise.
  9. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage.
  10. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically. Rationale: Insulin dosages should not be adjusted or increased before unusual exercise. If acetone is found in the urine, it may possibly indicate the need for additional insulin. To minimize the discomfort associated with insulin injections, the insulin should be administered at room temperature. Injection sites should be systematically rotated from one area to another. The client should be instructed to give injections in one area, about 1 inch apart, until the whole area has been used and then to change to another site. This prevents dramatic changes in daily insulin absorption. W 24.) A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and

NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?

  1. Withdraws the NPH insulin first
  2. Withdraws the regular insulin first
  1. Neuralgia
  2. Insomnia
  1. Use of nitroglycerin
  2. Use of multivitamins
  3. Use of nitroglycerin Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide in the corpus cavernosum of the penis, thus sustaining an erection. Because of the effect of the medication, it is contraindicated with concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Sildenafil is not contraindicated with the use of vitamins. Neuralgia and insomnia are side effects of the medication. W 28.) The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse knows that which of the following is the appropriate intervention?
  4. The medication is administered within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
  5. The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client.
  6. The client is monitored for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
  7. The insulin is withdrawn from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.
  8. The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client. Rationale: Exenatide (Byetta) is an incretin mimetic used for type 2 diabetes mellitus only. It is not recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should hold the medication and question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options 1 and 3 are correct statements about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe. W 29.) A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is: 1.2 to 4 hours after administration 2.4 to 12 hours after administration 3.16 to 18 hours after administration 4.18 to 24 hours after administration
  9. 4 to 12 hours after administration Rationale: Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. W 30.) A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus
  1. Phenelzine (Nardil)
  2. Atenolol (Tenormin)
  3. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
  4. Predniso ne Rationale: Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium supplements. Option 2, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and option 3, a β-blocker, have their own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia. W 31.) A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?
  5. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it."
  6. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time."
  7. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet."
  8. "If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor."
  9. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it." Rationale: Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 lb or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine- containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid- ulcer development. W 32.) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
  10. Decreased urinary output
  11. Decreased blood pressure
  12. Decreased peripheral edema
  13. Decreased blood glucose level
  14. Decreased urinary output Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water. The hormone carries out this action by acting on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase their permeability to water, which results in increased water reabsorption. The therapeutic effect of this medication would be manifested by a decreased urine output. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the effects of this medication.

W

  1. An episode of diarrhea
  2. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage
  3. An episode of diarrhea Rationale: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and also chronic diarrhea in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease. Loperamide also can be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy. It is not used for the conditions in options 1, 2, and 4. W 36.) The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this medication be administered to the postoperative client?
  4. Paralytic ileus
  5. Incisional pain
  6. Urinary retention
  7. Nausea and vomiting
  8. Nausea and vomiting Rationale: Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The other options are incorrect. W 37.) The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?
  9. Weight loss
  10. Relief of heartburn
  11. Reduction of steatorrhea
  12. Absence of abdominal pain
  13. Reduction of steatorrhea Rationale: Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status. It is not used to treat abdominal pain or heartburn. Its use could result in weight gain but should not result in weight loss if it is aiding in digestion. W 38.) An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
  14. Tremors
  15. Dizziness
  16. Confusion
  17. Hallucinations

Confusion Rationale: Cimetidine is a histamine 2 (H2)-receptor antagonist. Older clients are especially susceptible to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent of these is confusion. Less common central nervous system side effects include headache, dizziness, drowsiness, and hallucinations. W 39.) The client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse schedules the medication for which times?

  1. With meals and at bedtime
  2. Every 6 hours around the clock
  3. One hour after meals and at bedtime
  4. One hour before meals and at bedtime
  5. One hour before meals and at bedtime Rationale: Sucralfate is a gastric protectant. The medication should be scheduled for administration 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. The medication is timed to allow it to form a protective coating over the ulcer before food intake stimulates gastric acid production and mechanical irritation. The other options are incorrect. W 40.) The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted?
  6. Resolved diarrhea
  7. Relief of epigastric pain
  8. Decreased platelet count
  9. Decreased white blood cell count
  10. Relief of epigastric pain Rationale: The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is prone to gastric mucosal injury. Misoprostol is a gastric protectant and is given specifically to prevent this occurrence. Diarrhea can be a side effect of the medication, but is not an intended effect. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect. W 41.) The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
  11. Diarrhea
  12. Heartburn
  13. Flatulence
  14. Constipation