Download A.T.I RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024–2025 | Complete 140-Question Test Bank and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024–2025 |
Complete 140 - Question Test Bank with Real Exam
Questions, Verified Answers, Detailed Rationales,
NCLEX-RN Drug Therapy Review, and
Pharmacology Success Guide for Nursing
Students
Question 1: A nurse is preparing to transcribe a prescription for a client that reads "ondansetron 8 mg by mouth every 12 hr PRN." Which of the following parts of the prescription should the nurse clarify with the provider? A. Dose B. Route C. Frequency D. Reason - - correct ans- - D. Reason Rationale:
- A. Dose: The dose (8 mg) is clearly stated.
- B. Route: The route of administration (by mouth) is clearly stated.
- C. Frequency: The frequency (every 12 hr) is clearly stated.
- D. Reason: "PRN" means "as needed," but the prescription lacks the indication or reason for administering the ondansetron (e.g., for nausea, vomiting). Without a specific reason, the nurse would not know when it is appropriate to administer the medication. Correct Answer: D Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for nifedipine. Which of the following findings should the nurse assess prior to administration of the medication? A. Blood pressure B. Respiratory rate
C. Temperature D. Oxygen saturation - - correct ans- - A. Blood pressure Rationale:
- A. Blood pressure: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to lower blood pressure. Administering it to a client with already low blood pressure could cause hypotension. Therefore, assessing blood pressure prior to administration is crucial.
- B. Respiratory rate: While some medications can affect respiratory rate, nifedipine's primary action is on the cardiovascular system.
- C. Temperature: Nifedipine does not typically have a direct effect on body temperature.
- D. Oxygen saturation: While low blood pressure can indirectly affect oxygen saturation, the primary concern with nifedipine is its effect on blood pressure. Correct Answer: A Question 3: A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for carbamazepine for the treatment of seizures. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? A. Blurred vision B. Insomnia C. Metallic taste D. Tachypnea - - correct ans- - A. Blurred vision Rationale:
- A. Blurred vision: Blurred vision is a common adverse effect of carbamazepine due to its effects on the nervous system.
- B. Insomnia: While sleep disturbances can occur with some medications, drowsiness is a more common side effect of carbamazepine.
- C. Metallic taste: Metallic taste is not a typical adverse effect associated with carbamazepine.
- D. Tachypnea: Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is not a common adverse effect of carbamazepine. Respiratory depression is a rare but more serious concern with some anticonvulsants, but tachypnea is not characteristic.
- A. Discontinue the infusion: While the infusion may eventually need adjustment, the immediate priority in hypoglycemia is to raise the client's blood glucose level. Discontinuing the infusion without intervention will worsen the hypoglycemia.
- B. Administer IV dextrose: This is the correct action. Intravenous dextrose provides a rapid source of glucose to increase the client's blood sugar level quickly.
- C. Warm formula to room temperature: Warming the formula is important for client comfort but does not address the immediate issue of hypoglycemia.
- D. Obtain arterial blood gases: Arterial blood gases assess oxygenation and acid- base balance, which are not the immediate concern in hypoglycemia caused by parenteral nutrition. Correct Answer: B Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client who has septic shock and is receiving dopamine by continuous IV infusion. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion? A. Headache B. Hypotension C. Chest pain D. Extravasation - - correct ans- - B. Hypotension Rationale:
- A. Headache: Headache is a potential side effect of dopamine due to its vasoconstrictive properties, but it doesn't necessarily indicate a need to increase the infusion rate.
- B. Hypotension: Dopamine is often used in septic shock to increase blood pressure by its adrenergic effects (vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output at higher doses). Persistent hypotension despite the dopamine infusion suggests that the current rate may be inadequate to achieve the desired blood pressure, and an increase may be warranted (as per the provider's orders or protocol).
- C. Chest pain: Chest pain could indicate myocardial ischemia due to the increased cardiac workload from dopamine and would likely warrant a decrease or discontinuation of the infusion rather than an increase.
- D. Extravasation: Extravasation is the leakage of the IV fluid into the surrounding tissues. Dopamine is a vesicant, and extravasation can cause tissue damage. This would necessitate stopping the infusion at the affected site and managing the extravasation, not increasing the rate. Correct Answer: B Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin and reports taking several new herbal supplements. The nurse should identify which of the following supplements is contraindicated for concurrent use with warfarin? A. Ginkgo biloba B. Coenzyme Q C. Valerian D. Probiotics - - correct ans- - A. Ginkgo biloba Rationale:
- A. Ginkgo biloba: Ginkgo biloba has antiplatelet effects and can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with anticoagulants like warfarin. This makes it contraindicated for concurrent use.
- B. Coenzyme Q10: Coenzyme Q10 is an antioxidant and is not known to significantly interact with warfarin.
- C. Valerian: Valerian is often used for its sedative effects and does not typically have significant interactions with warfarin.
- D. Probiotics: Probiotics are beneficial bacteria for gut health and are not known to have significant interactions with warfarin. Correct Answer: A Question 8: A nurse is assessing a client with hypertension who is receiving propranolol. Which of the following findings requires the nurse's intervention? A. Heart rate of 56/min B. SaO2 95% on 2 L/min of oxygen C. Respirations 22/min D. Blood pressure 106/68 mm Hg - - correct ans- - A. HR of
B. Simvastatin C. Prochlorperazine D. Metformin - - correct ans- - C. Prochlorperazine A nurse is preparing to administer filgrastim 5 mcg/kg/day subcutaneous to a client who weighs 143 lb. How many mcg should the nurse administer per day? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) -
- correct ans- - 325mcg per day. A nurse is caring for a client who develops an anaphylactic reaction to IV antibiotic administration. After assessing the client's respiratory status and stopping the medication infusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take next? A. Administer epinephrine IM. B. Replace the infusion with 0.9% sodium chloride. C. Give diphenhydramine IM. D. Elevate the client's legs and feet. - - correct ans- - A. Administer epinephrine IM. A nurse is developing a teaching plan for an older adult client who has a new prescription for insulin glargine. Which of the following expected outcomes should the nurse include in the plan? A. The client will administer insulin glargine before each meal. B. The client will use the deltoid muscle as an injection site. C. The client will take an additional dose of insulin glargine prior to exercise. D. The client will wear his reading glasses when drawing up a dose of insulin glargine. - - correct ans- - D. The client will wear his reading glasses when drawing up a dose of insulin glargine.
A nurse is preparing to administer medication to a client for the first time and needs to know about potential food and medication interactions. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Have the client take the medication on an empty stomach to avoid interactions. B. Consult a drug reference guide for possible interactions. C. Ask another nurse if they are aware of potential interactions. D. Check the client's medical record for medication and food interactions. - - correct ans- - B. Consult a drug reference guide for possible interactions. A nurse is taking a medication history from a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. The nurse should instruct the client to wait 4 hr after taking levothyroxine before taking which of the following supplements? A. Ginkgo biloba B. Calcium C. Vitamin C D. Zinc - - correct ans- - B. Calcium A nurse is preparing to administer total parenteral nutrition to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Obtain the client's weight three times a week. B. Check the client's WBC count daily. C. Keep the solution refrigerated until 1 hr before infusion. D. Change the solution every 36 hrs. - - correct ans- - C. Keep the solution refrigerated until 1 hr before infusion. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication to a client. Using the rights of medication administration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to ensure the right medication is administered to the client?
B. Acetaminophen C. Ondansetron D. Insulin Glargine - - correct ans- - A. Nalbuphine A nurse is administering medications to a client who weighs 132 lb. The prescription reads chloramphenicol, 50mg/kg/day in 4 divided doses. Available is chloramphenicol 100 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse give with each dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) - - correct ans- - 7.5mL A nurse is planning to administer medications to a client who weighs 198 lb. The prescription reads, "filgrastim 5 mcg/kg, subcutaneous, daily." Available is filgrastim 300 mcg/mL. How many mL should the nurse plan to give with each dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) - - correct ans- - 1.5mL A nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of penicillin G IM to a client. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an indication of an allergic reaction following the injection? A. Pallor B. Dyspepsia C. Bradycardia D. Urticaria - - correct ans- - D. Urticaria A nurse is caring for a client who is taking lithium and reports starting a new exercise program. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following electrolyte imbalances? A. Hypomagnesemia B. Hypocalcemia C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypokalemia - - correct ans- - C. Hyponatremia A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is receiving intermittent parenteral metronidazole. Which of the following conditions should the nurse recognize as an indication for this medication? A. Endocarditis B. Kidney transplant C. Seizures D. Hypokalemia - - correct ans- - A. Endocarditis A nurse is caring for a client in the clinic. Vital Signs 1 week ago: Temp 37 HR64/min RR 12/min BP 118/72 mm Hg Today: Temp 37.2 HR 82/min RR 16/min BP 110/68 mm Hg. Which of the following client statements indicates to the nurse the teaching was effective? A. "I will consume foods that are soft or semisolid." B. "I will avoid consuming alcoholic beverages." C. "I will perform oral hygiene using a firm-bristle toothbrush." D. "I will avoid taking folic acid supplements while taking this medication. - - correct ans- - A. "I will consume foods that are soft or semisolid." A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin by intermittent IV bolus. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an indication of a therapeutic response to the medication?
Client presents for evaluation of neurological changes, including stiffness of lower extremities, and shaking of hands. Client is married, has no known allergies, and no surgical history. Client is a retired airline pilot and the parent of five adult children. Day 7: Client reports having trouble sleeping due to nightmares and states, "I'm not sure this medication is doing what it's supposed to do." Client reports daily nausea. Which of the following statements should the nurse include when teaching the client about the prescribed medication? (SATA). A. "Consumption of a high protein meal can reduce the effectiveness of the medication. B. "You may notice your urine becomes lighter in color." C. "You may initially notice an increase in involuntary movements." D. "You can experience vivid nightmares. E. "The medication can cause nausea, s - - correct ans- - B, C, D, E A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a client. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse review prior to administration? A. PT B. Total iron-binding capacity C. WBC D. PTT - - correct ans- - A. PT A nurse is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following situations requires an incident report? A. Client experiences a seizure. B. A client vomits after receiving an oral medication. C. A client receives their insulin 1 hours before scheduled. D. A client receives their meal tray 20 min late. - - correct ans- - C. A client receives their insulin 1 hour before scheduled.
A nurse is assessing a client who has received oxycodone. The nurse notes that the client's respiratory rate is 8/min. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the pathophysiology for the client's respiratory rate? A. Oxycodone blocks the sodium channel suspending nerve conduction. B. Oxycodone promotes vasodilation of cranial arteries. C. Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression. D. Oxycodone inhibits prostaglandin synthesis. - - correct ans- - C. Oxycodone causes central nervous system depression. A nurse is preparing to administer cefazolin 1 g in 0.9% sodium chloride 100 ml- via intermittent IV bolus over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is I5 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) - - correct ans- - 50gtt/min A nurse is mixing regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe prior to administering it to a client who has diabetes mellitus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Inject air into the NPH vial. B. Withdraw the regular insulin from the vial. C. Inject air into the regular insulin vial. D. Withdraw the NPH insulin from the vial - - correct ans- - A. inject air into the NPH vial. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a female client who asks about a prescription for alendronate for the treatment of osteoporosis. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a safety risk for the client when taking this medication? A. The client has a history of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. B. The client has a first-degree relative who has Paget's disease.
D. Abdominal bloating - - correct ans- - A. leg tenderness A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes mellitus and is taking pioglitazone. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Insomnia B. Fluid retention C. Tinnitus D. Orthostatic hypotension - - correct ans- - B. Fluid retention A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who reports a severe headache. The client's blood pressure is 280/160 mm Hg. The nurse should plan to administer which of the following medications? A. Dobutamine B. Epinephrine C. Dexamethasone D. Nitroprusside - - correct ans- - D. Nitroprusside A nurse is preparing to administer propranolol to a client. Which of the following should the nurse assess prior to administering this medication? A. Respiratory rate B. HR C. Pain level D. Temperature - - correct ans- - B. HR A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking clopidogrel. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor and report which of the following adverse effects of the medication?
A. Constipation B. Weight loss C. Bruising D. Blurred vision - - correct ans- - C. Bruising A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You may crush the medication and mix it with applesauce. " B. "You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy. " C. "Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication. " D. "You should take the medication in the morning." - - correct ans- - B. "You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy." A nurse is caring for a client who has major depression and a new prescription for citalopram. Which of the following adverse effects is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider? A. Bruxism B. Confusion C. Insomnia D. Weight loss - - correct ans- - B. Confusion A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "You will be weighed twice a week while receiving TPN."
A nurse in a coronary care unit is admitting a client who has had CPR following a cardiac arrest. The client is receiving lidocaine IV at 2 mg/min. When the client asks the nurse why he is receiving that medication, the nurse should explain that it has which of the following actions? A. Prevents dysrhythmias B. Relieves pain C. Dissolves blood clots D. Slows intestinal motility - - correct ans- - A. Prevents dysrhythmias A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a client who took 3 nitroglycerin tablets sublingually for chest pain. The client reports relief from the chest pain but now he is experiencing a headache. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. A headache is likely due to the anxiety about the chest pain. B. A headache indicates tolerance to the medication. C. A headache is an expected adverse effect of the medication. D. A headache is an indication of an allergy to the medication. - - correct ans- - C. A Headache is an expected adverse effect of the medication. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide for management of hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. Reduce intake of potassium-rich foods. B. Avoid grapefruit juice. C. Take this medication before bedtime. D. Monitor for leg cramps. - - correct ans- - D. Monitor for leg cramps
A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving a unit of packed RBCs following surgery. Which of the following assessments is an indication that the client might be experiencing a hemolytic reaction? A. Vomiting B. Flushing C. Dyspnea D. Hypotension - - correct ans- - C. Dyspnea A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following statements by the nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. "I should take this medication with food." B. "I should expect to have facial swelling when taking this medication." C. "I should report a cough to my provider." D. "I should increase my intake of potassium-rich foods." - - correct ans- - C. " I should report a cough to my provider." A charge nurse is supervising a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed RBCs. The nurse suspects a possible hemolytic reaction. After stopping the blood transfusion, which of the following actions by the new nurse requires intervention by the charge nurse? A. The nurse collects a urine specimen. B. The nurse sends a blood specimen to the laboratory. C. The nurse initiates an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride. D. The nurse starts the transfusion of another unit of blood product. - - correct ans- - D. The nurse starts the transfusion of another unit of blood product. A nurse is caring for a client who is on warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. The client's INR is 5.2. Which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?
