Download A.T.I RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024–2025 | Updated 100-Question Test Bank and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024–2025 |
Updated 100 - Question Test Bank with Verified
Answers, In-Depth Rationales, Complete
Pharmacology Review Guide, and NCLEX RN Prep
Toolkit for Nursing Students
Question 1: Which of the following are complications of Warfarin? (SATA) A. bleeding B. cramps C. fever D. nausea E. all of the above - - correct ans- - E. all of the above Rationale: The provided correct answer is "E. all of the above". However, this is incorrect. While bleeding is a major and well-known complication of warfarin, cramps, fever, and nausea are not typically direct complications of warfarin therapy.
- A. Bleeding: This is a major and well-documented complication of warfarin due to its anticoagulant effects.
- B. Cramps: Muscle cramps are not a typical side effect or complication directly associated with warfarin.
- C. Fever: Fever is not a common complication of warfarin therapy. It usually indicates an infection or other underlying condition.
- D. Nausea: Nausea is not a primary or common complication directly linked to warfarin. Correct Answer: A Question 2:
Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while saving K+ and Hydrogen ions? a. Spironolactone b. Furosemide c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Bumetanide - - correct ans- - A. Spironolactone Rationale:
- a. Spironolactone: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking the action of aldosterone in the distal tubule and collecting ducts of the kidneys. Aldosterone normally promotes sodium reabsorption and potassium and hydrogen ion excretion. By blocking aldosterone, spironolactone increases sodium and water excretion while conserving potassium and hydrogen ions.
- b. Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. It leads to significant potassium and some hydrogen ion loss.
- c. Hydrochlorothiazide: This is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule. It also leads to potassium and some hydrogen ion loss.
- d. Bumetanide: This is another loop diuretic with a similar mechanism and effects to furosemide, leading to potassium and hydrogen ion loss. Correct Answer: A Question 3: Which of the following drugs can suppress seizure activity and decrease the frequency of migraine headache? a. glipizide b. hydrochlorothiazide c. atropine d. valproate - - correct ans- - D. valproate Rationale:
- a. glipizide: This is a sulfonylurea medication used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin release from the pancreas. It has no direct effect on seizure activity or migraine headaches.
B) vomiting C) stomach cramps D) chest pain - - correct ans- - A. chest pain Rationale: The provided correct answer is "A. chest pain". However, while chest pain can occur, tachycardia (increased heart rate), palpitations, and tremors are more common adverse effects of albuterol due to its beta-adrenergic stimulation. Let's re-evaluate the options:
- A) Nausea: Nausea is not a primary common adverse effect of albuterol.
- B) Vomiting: Vomiting is also not a typical common adverse effect of albuterol.
- C) Stomach cramps: Gastrointestinal issues like stomach cramps are not commonly associated with albuterol.
- D) Chest pain: While chest pain can occur, it is less common than cardiovascular effects like tachycardia and palpitations, which are due to beta- 1 receptor stimulation. However, if chest pain is experienced, it is a significant adverse effect that needs to be reported. Given the options, and considering potential cardiac effects of beta-agonists, chest pain is the most concerning and plausible adverse effect listed, even if not the most common overall. Correct Answer: D (with the caveat that tachycardia and palpitations are more typical) Question 6: Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic? a. Furosemide b. Spironolactone c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Bumetanide - - correct ans- - B. Spironolactone Rationale:
- a. Furosemide: This is a loop diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle, leading to significant potassium loss.
- b. Spironolactone: This is a potassium-sparing diuretic that blocks the action of aldosterone in the distal tubule and collecting ducts, promoting sodium and water excretion while conserving potassium.
- c. Hydrochlorothiazide: This is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.
- d. Bumetanide: This is another loop diuretic with a similar mechanism and effects to furosemide, leading to potassium loss. Correct Answer: B Question 7: Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID? A. Morphine B. Ibuprofen C. Hydromorphone D. Acetaminophen - - correct ans- - D. Acetaminophen Rationale:
- A. Morphine: This is a potent opioid analgesic.
- B. Ibuprofen: This is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) with analgesic, antipyretic, and anti-inflammatory properties.
- C. Hydromorphone: This is a semi-synthetic opioid analgesic.
- D. Acetaminophen: While acetaminophen has analgesic and antipyretic properties, it is not classified as an NSAID because it does not have significant anti-inflammatory effects at typical doses. It also does not bind to opioid receptors in the same way as opioid analgesics. Correct Answer: D Question 8: Which of the following should be monitored for patients taking diuretics? (select all that apply) a. Daily weight b. Intake and output c. Amount and location of edema d. Appetite e. Lung sounds - - correct ans- - a. daily weight b. intake & output c. amount & location of edema e. lung sounds
b) Montelukast c) Clopidogrel d) Ondansetron - - correct ans- - C. Clopidogrel Rationale:
- a) Albuterol: This is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist used as a bronchodilator. It does not inhibit platelet aggregation.
- b) Montelukast: This is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used to treat asthma and allergic rhinitis. It does not inhibit platelet aggregation.
- c) Clopidogrel: This is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits the binding of ADP to its platelet receptor, thereby inhibiting platelet activation and aggregation.
- d) Ondansetron: This is a serotonin (5-HT3) receptor antagonist used to prevent nausea and vomiting. It does not inhibit platelet aggregation. Correct Answer: C Question 11: While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a health care provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II b. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure c. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta rec - - correct ans- - A. to lower BP by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Rationale:
- a. To lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II: This is the correct mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors. They prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By reducing angiotensin II levels, ACE inhibitors cause vasodilation and lower blood pressure. They also reduce aldosterone release, which leads to increased sodium and water excretion.
- b. To inhibit reabsorption of sodium back into the body, ultimately increasing urine output and lowering blood pressure: This describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. While ACE inhibitors have a secondary effect on sodium excretion by reducing aldosterone, their primary action is angiotensin II inhibition.
- c. To decrease heart rate and blood pressure by competing with Beta1 and Beta receptors: This describes the mechanism of action of beta-blockers. ACE inhibitors do not directly act on beta receptors. Correct Answer: A Why is it important to monitor ins and outs with patients using ACE inhibitors? A. To assess for renal impairment B. You must make sure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure D. You must assess for NSAID use E. To assess for decreased blood pressure - - correct ans- - C. to assess the patient for potential HF When administering the drug senna to a patient, a health care provider must inform the patient of which of the following a. This drug is intended to lower blood pressure and is best used in combination with other antihypertensives b. This drug is not intended for long term use c. The patient must limit his/her fiber intake d. Advise patient to change positions slowly to limit the risk of orthostatic hypotension - - correct ans- - B. This drug is not intended for long term use What is the therapeutic use of metformin?
A. The medication will kill microorganisms that can cause infection at the fracture site. B. Cyclobenzaprine will reduce itching that might occur as the fracture begins to heal. C. The medication will relieve muscle spasms that might occur with a fracture. D. Cyclobenzaprine will relieve any nausea associated with a fracture. - - correct ans- - C. The medication will relieve muscle spasms that might occur with a fracture. A nurse in a provider's clinic is assessing a client who has cancer and a prescription for methotrexate PO. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when the client reports bleeding gums? A. Check the value of the client's current platelet count. B. Explain to the client that this is an expected adverse effect. C. Instruct the client to use an electric toothbrush. D. Have the client make an appointment to see the dentist. - - correct ans- - A. Check the value of the client's current platelet count A nurse is caring for a client is who has a deep vein thrombosis and is prescribed heparin by continuous IV infusion at 1,200 units/hr. Available is heparin 25,000 units in 500 mL D5W. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth/whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.) - - correct ans- - 24 A nurse is reviewing a client's admission record. The nurse notes that there are prescriptions for several medications. Which of the following factors should the nurse recognize is of primary consideration when determining the schedule of administration? A. Institutional policies regarding routine medication administration times B. Specific characteristics of the medications C. Schedule of administration that the client follows at home D. Time at which the medication can be available from the pharmacy - - correct ans- - B. Specific characteristics of the medications
A nurse is caring for a client who has atrial fibrillation and receives digoxin daily. Before administering this medication, which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Weigh the client. B. Measure the client's blood pressure. C. Measure the client's apical pulse. D. Offer the client a light snack. - - correct ans- - C. Measure the client's apical pulse A nurse is caring for a client who is at 6 weeks of gestation and has pneumonia. While the nurse is obtaining the client's history, the client tells the nurse that she takes the herb feverfew for migraine headaches. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Tell the client that she should take an over-the-counter analgesic instead. B. Explain to the client that she should not take this herb while she is pregnant. C. Ask the client why she would take an herb during pregnancy. D. Suggest that the client ask her herbalist within the next few weeks about taking it while pregnant. - - correct ans- - B. Explain to the client that she should not take this herb while she is pregnant. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has angina pectoris and a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A."I'll dial 911 if 1 nitroglycerin tablet does not relieve my pain, and then take up to 2 more tablets 5 minutes apart while waiting." B. "I'll dial 911 if i still have pain after taking 3 nitroglycerin tablets 5 minutes apart." C. "I'll call 911 if i still have pain after taking 4 nitroglycerin tablets over a 20-minute period."
D. urine specific gravity greater than 1. E. crackles upon auscultation - - correct ans- - A. bounding pulse B. pitting edema E. crackles upon auscultation A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for verapamil for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include? A. "Limit your fluid intake to meal times." B. "Do not take this medication on an empty stomach." C. "Increase your daily intake of dietary fiber." C. "You can expect swelling of the ankles while taking this medication." - - correct ans- - C. "increase your daily intake of dietary fiber." A nurse is teaching a client who has angina pectoris about starting therapy with SL nitroglycerin tablets. The nurse should include which of the following instructions regarding how to take the medication? A. Take this medication after each meal and at bedtime. B. Take one tablet every 15 minutes during an acute attack. C. Take this medication with 8 ounces of water. D. Take one tablet at the first indication of chest pain. - - correct ans- - D. Take one tablet at the first indication of chest pain. A nurse is caring for a client who received an injection of penicillin G procaine. The client begins to experience dyspnea and tongue swelling. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform first? - - correct ans- - Administer epinephrine subcutaneously A nurse is providing teaching for a client who has anemia and a new prescription for ferrous sulfate liquid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
A. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. B. Rinse the mouth before taking the iron. C. Take the medication on an empty stomach to decrease gastrointestinal irritation. D. Take the medication with milk - - correct ans- - A. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lithium. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. follow a low-sodium diet B. limit daily fluid intake C. obtain a daily weight D. avoid foods that have a high tyramine content - - correct ans- - C. obtain a daily weight A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client who has heart failure. Which of the following actions is appropriate? A. withhold the medication if the heart rate is above 100 B. instruct the client to eat foods that are low in potassium C. measure apical pulse rate for 30 seconds before administering D. evaluating the client for nausea, vomiting, and anorexia - - correct ans- - D. evaluating the client for nausea, vomiting, and anorexia A nurse is caring for a client who has deep vein thrombosis and has been on heparin continuous infusion for 5 days. The provider prescribes warfarin PO without discontinuing the heparin. The client asks the nurse why both anticoagulants are necessary. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "I will call the provider to get a prescription for discontinuing the IV heparin today."
A charge nurse is supervising a newly licensed nurse care for a client who is receiving a transfusion of packed RBC. The nurse suspects a possible hemolytic reaction. After stopping the blood transfusion, which of the following actions by the new nurse requires intervention by the charge nurse? A. The nurse sent a blood specimen to the laboratory B. The nurse initiate a infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride C. The nurse collects a urine specimen D. The nurse starts the transfusion of another unit of blood product. - - correct ans- - D. The nurse starts the transfusion of another unit of blood product. A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child who has seizures and is receiving phenytoin in suspension form. Which of the following actions should the nurse take before administering each dose? A. Check the child's BP B. Perform oral care C. Shake the container vigorously prior to preparing the dose D. Be sure the child has not eaten within the hour - - correct ans- - C. Shake the container vigorously prior to preparing the dose A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for propranolol. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication? A. Ototoxicity B. Tachycardia C. Postural hypotension D. Hypokalemia - - correct ans- - C. Postural hypotension
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute cocaine toxicity. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Tremors b. Hypothermia c. Hypotension d. Respiratory depression - - correct ans- - A. Tremors A nurse is providing discharge dietary teaching to a client who has a something and is taking medication theophylline and to provide general instructions the nurse should include? A. "Limit your sodium intake." B. "Restrict milk products." C. Avoid caffeinated beverages." D. "Take the medication with food." - - correct ans- - C. "Avoid caffeinated beverages." a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription of Alendronate for osteoporosis. What instructions should the nurse include? A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes B. Avoid rapid movements after taking the medication C. Take the medication with water only D. Allow at least 1 hour between taking the medicine and taking other medications - - correct ans- - A. Rest in bed after taking the medication for at least 30 minutes. a nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy and is receiving morphine for pain. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an adverse effect of morphine?
B. Back pain C. Nausea D. Flushing - - correct ans- - A. Uterine tachsystole a nurse is performing a return demonstration of an enoxaparin administration. Which of the following client actions indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. Aspirates the medication after injection B. Administers the medication into the abdomen C. Injects the medication into the muscle D. Massages the site to enhance absorption - - correct ans- - B. Administers the medication into the abdomen A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking digoxin. Which of the following findings to the nurse indicates this client has developed digoxin toxicity? A. Blurred vision B. Ringing in the ears C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypertension - - correct ans- - A. Blurred vision A nurse is caring for a client who received neostigmine 1 hour ago and is experiencing muscarinic response. Which if the following manifestations should the nurse expect? A. Occipital headache B. Fever C. Myoclonic seizure D. Excessive salivation - - correct ans- - D. Excessive salivation
A nurse in the emergency department is reviewing a medication record for client who reports vomiting blood. The nurse should anticipate the provider will discontinue which of the following medications? A. NPH insulin B. Clopidogrel C. Furosemide D. Pantoprazole - - correct ans- - C. Clopidogrel A nurse is assessing a who is receiving clindamycin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of this medication? A. watery diarrhea B. report of blurred vision C. hypertension D. agitation - - correct ans- - A. watery diarrhea A nurse is teaching a client who is to start taking Cromolyn. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Cromolyn should take effect within 5 minutes B. Cromolyn should dilate the bronchioles C. Cromolyn can be used after exercise D. Cromolyn is a long-term management medication - - correct ans- - D. Cromolyn is a long-term management medication
