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Autonomic Nervous System and Adrenergic Pharmacology - Prof. PURDUL, Exams of Nursing

Brookdale Community CollegeNursing

A comprehensive overview of the autonomic nervous system and the pharmacology of adrenergic agents. It covers the primary mechanisms, effects, and clinical applications of sympathomimetic and sympatholytic drugs, as well as the roles of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems in regulating various physiological processes. The document delves into topics such as the regulation of heart rate and contractility, vascular tone, bronchodilation, and the fight-or-flight response. It also explores the interactions between neurotransmitters, receptors, and the actions of specific drug classes. This information is highly relevant for students and professionals in the fields of pharmacology, physiology, and clinical medicine, as it enhances their understanding of the autonomic nervous system and the therapeutic potential of adrenergic agents.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 10/10/2024

Purdul
Purdul 🇺🇸

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Neuropharmacology of the PNS Exam Questions and Answers |
100% correct
1. What is the primary therapeutic application of Methyldopa, and what makes it a preferred
choice for managing hypertension in pregnant patients?
A) Reduces heart rate; safe during pregnancy
B) Lowers blood pressure; safe during pregnancy
C) Increases blood volume; preferred for renal patients
D) Enhances diuresis; causes fewer side effects
Answer: B) Lowers blood pressure; safe during pregnancy
2. Clonidine lowers blood pressure because:
A) It causes vasodilation
B) It decreases heart rate
C) It acts centrally to inhibit sympathetic outflow
D) It enhances renin release
Answer: C) It acts centrally to inhibit sympathetic outflow
3. What is the primary mechanism by which beta-1 blockers help manage dysrhythmias?
A) Increase heart contractility
B) Decrease heart rate and conduction velocity
C) Promote vasodilation
D) Enhance adrenergic receptor sensitivity
Answer: B) Decrease heart rate and conduction velocity
4. What class of medication is Prazosin and what is one of its main therapeutic uses?
A) Alpha-1 antagonist; hypertension
B) Beta blocker; heart failure
C) ACE inhibitor; renal protection
D) Calcium channel blocker; angina
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Neuropharmacology of the PNS Exam Questions and Answers |

100% correct

  1. What is the primary therapeutic application of Methyldopa, and what makes it a preferred choice for managing hypertension in pregnant patients? A) Reduces heart rate; safe during pregnancy B) Lowers blood pressure; safe during pregnancy C) Increases blood volume; preferred for renal patients D) Enhances diuresis; causes fewer side effects Answer: B) Lowers blood pressure; safe during pregnancy
  2. Clonidine lowers blood pressure because: A) It causes vasodilation B) It decreases heart rate C) It acts centrally to inhibit sympathetic outflow D) It enhances renin release Answer: C) It acts centrally to inhibit sympathetic outflow
  3. What is the primary mechanism by which beta-1 blockers help manage dysrhythmias? A) Increase heart contractility B) Decrease heart rate and conduction velocity C) Promote vasodilation D) Enhance adrenergic receptor sensitivity Answer: B) Decrease heart rate and conduction velocity
  4. What class of medication is Prazosin and what is one of its main therapeutic uses? A) Alpha-1 antagonist; hypertension B) Beta blocker; heart failure C) ACE inhibitor; renal protection D) Calcium channel blocker; angina

Answer: A) Alpha-1 antagonist; hypertension

  1. Most common adverse effect of beta blocker in the heart... A) Tachycardia B) Bradycardia C) Hypertension D) Arrhythmias Answer: B) Bradycardia
  2. Dobutamine acts on the following receptors: A) Alpha- B) Beta- C) Beta- D) Muscarinic Answer: B) Beta-
  3. The sympathetic nervous system's primary effect on cardiac output is primarily? A) Vasodilation B) Increased heart rate and contractility C) Decreased stroke volume D) Increased diastolic pressure Answer: B) Increased heart rate and contractility
  4. How do adrenergic drugs primarily influence the cardiovascular system during a fight-or-flight response? A) Increase heart rate and contractility B) Decrease peripheral resistance C) Lower blood glucose levels D) Promote diuresis Answer: A) Increase heart rate and contractility
  5. Which statement accurately describes the roles of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons in neurotransmission?

Answer: A) Synthesis, release, binding, reuptake

  1. Which statement about peripheral nervous system (PNS) drugs is incorrect? A) They can enhance neurotransmission. B) They only act on adrenergic receptors. C) They can inhibit neurotransmission. D) They can mimic neurotransmitters. Answer: B) They only act on adrenergic receptors.
  2. One of the following statements is wrong about Dexmedetomidine: A) It is an alpha-2 agonist. B) It has sedative properties. C) It is primarily used for hypertension. D) It can cause bradycardia. Answer: C) It is primarily used for hypertension.
  3. What is the primary function of the detrusor muscle in the urinary bladder, and what role does the parasympathetic nervous system play in its activity? A) Contract to promote urination; stimulated by parasympathetic nervous system B) Relax to promote urination; inhibited by parasympathetic nervous system C) Control sphincter function; activated by sympathetic nervous system D) Provide structural support; independent of autonomic control Answer: A) Contract to promote urination; stimulated by parasympathetic nervous system
  4. Which of the following is NOT a primary clinical application of epinephrine? A) Anaphylaxis B) Asthma C) Hypertension D) Cardiac arrest Answer: C) Hypertension
  1. Which of the following describes a response of the eye to sympathetic stimulation? A) Constriction of the pupil B) Dilation of the pupil C) Increased tear production D) Accommodation for near vision Answer: B) Dilation of the pupil
  2. What is the role of monoamine oxidase (MAO)? A) Synthesize neurotransmitters B) Degrade neurotransmitters C) Enhance neurotransmitter release D) Inhibit receptor activity Answer: B) Degrade neurotransmitters
  3. What is the significance of the blood-brain barrier in pharmacology? A) It allows all substances to enter the brain. B) It protects the brain from pathogens and toxins. C) It enhances drug absorption. D) It facilitates neurotransmitter transport. Answer: B) It protects the brain from pathogens and toxins.
  4. Which of the following best describes the process of glycogenolysis and its relationship with the sympathetic nervous system? A) Breakdown of glycogen to glucose; increases energy availability during stress B) Conversion of glucose to glycogen; stores energy for stress response C) Synthesis of glycogen from glucose; enhances relaxation D) Utilization of fat stores for energy; decreases blood glucose levels Answer: A) Breakdown of glycogen to glucose; increases energy availability during stress
  5. What is an effect of the sympathetic nervous system? A) Increased gastrointestinal motility B) Dilation of bronchioles

Answer: B) Block the action of neurotransmitters

  1. Which of the following best describes the mechanisms by which drugs can influence neurotransmission? A) Altering synthesis, release, receptor binding, and reuptake B) Enhancing neurotransmitter degradation C) Blocking blood flow to neurons D) Stimulating the immune response Answer: A) Altering synthesis, release, receptor binding, and reuptake
  2. Epinephrine is released into the bloodstream and interacts with adrenergic receptors to regulate the fight or flight response. A) True B) False Answer: A) True
  3. Which of the following pairs correctly identifies an alpha 1 agonist and its therapeutic application? A) Phenylephrine; nasal congestion B) Isoproterenol; hypertension C) Clonidine; anxiety D) Dobutamine; bradycardia Answer: A) Phenylephrine; nasal congestion
  4. What would an agonist of an alpha 1 receptor do? A) Cause vasodilation B) Induce vasoconstriction C) Decrease heart rate D) Increase renin release Answer: B) Induce vasoconstriction
  5. How do MAO inhibitors affect neurotransmitter levels in the peripheral nervous system? A) Increase neurotransmitter breakdown

B) Increase neurotransmitter availability C) Decrease receptor sensitivity D) Block neurotransmitter synthesis Answer: B) Increase neurotransmitter availability

  1. During pupil dilation, what physiological change occurs? A) Contraction of circular muscles B) Relaxation of radial muscles C) Contraction of radial muscles D) Relaxation of circular muscles Answer: C) Contraction of radial muscles
  2. How does epinephrine facilitate bronchodilation in the respiratory system? A) By stimulating beta-1 receptors B) By stimulating alpha-2 receptors C) By stimulating beta-2 receptors D) By inhibiting muscarinic receptors Answer: C) By stimulating beta-2 receptors
  3. What is the primary consequence of enzyme degradation on neurotransmitter activity in the synaptic cleft? A) Prolonged action of neurotransmitters B) Increased neurotransmitter binding C) Termination of neurotransmitter action D) Enhanced receptor sensitivity Answer: C) Termination of neurotransmitter action
  4. The main effect of beta-3 activation is: A) Increased heart rate B) Lipolysis in adipose tissue C) Vasoconstriction D) Decreased insulin secretion
  1. Which of the following statements accurately describes the actions of epinephrine and norepinephrine as endogenous adrenergic agonists? A) They have opposite effects on all tissues. B) They both stimulate alpha and beta receptors. C) Only epinephrine stimulates beta receptors. D) Only norepinephrine stimulates alpha receptors. Answer: B) They both stimulate alpha and beta receptors.
  2. What is the mechanism by which alpha-1 adrenergic antagonists alleviate symptoms in patients with Raynaud's phenomenon? A) Inducing vasodilation B) Enhancing vasoconstriction C) Decreasing heart rate D) Increasing peripheral resistance Answer: A) Inducing vasodilation
  3. What is the primary function of alpha 2 adrenergic receptors in the context of neurotransmission? A) Facilitate neurotransmitter release B) Inhibit neurotransmitter release C) Stimulate heart rate D) Promote vasodilation Answer: B) Inhibit neurotransmitter release
  4. What is the primary function of the sympathetic nervous system in relation to the cardiovascular system? A) Decrease heart rate B) Increase cardiac output and blood pressure C) Enhance diuresis D) Promote vasodilation Answer: B) Increase cardiac output and blood pressure
  1. What is the primary role of receptors in the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? A) Convert electrical signals into chemical signals B) Transmit signals between neurons C) Receive neurotransmitters and mediate physiological responses D) Store neurotransmitters for future use Answer: C) Receive neurotransmitters and mediate physiological responses
  2. An agonist is a substance that: A) Blocks receptor activity B) Mimics the action of a neurotransmitter C) Enhances neurotransmitter degradation D) Decreases receptor sensitivity Answer: B) Mimics the action of a neurotransmitter
  3. Adrenergic drugs are commonly used to treat: A) Anxiety disorders B) Asthma and cardiovascular conditions C) Infections D) Gastrointestinal issues Answer: B) Asthma and cardiovascular conditions
  4. Role of Neurotransmitters: What is the primary function of neurotransmitters in the nervous system? A) Provide structural support B) Facilitate communication between neurons C) Regulate blood flow D) Synthesize energy Answer: B) Facilitate communication between neurons
  5. In the peripheral nervous system, what is the primary function of an effector junction? A) Facilitate neuronal signaling

Answer: B) Non-catecholamines

  1. What is the primary mechanism by which epinephrine exerts its effects on target organs in the autonomic nervous system? A) Direct stimulation of muscarinic receptors B) Activation of adrenergic receptors C) Inhibition of MAO D) Enhancement of dopamine release Answer: B) Activation of adrenergic receptors
  2. Which of the following statements accurately describes catecholamines and their absorption characteristics? A) They are poorly absorbed when taken orally. B) They are rapidly absorbed through the skin. C) They have long half-lives in the bloodstream. D) They easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Answer: A) They are poorly absorbed when taken orally.
  3. Preparing the body for the "fight or flight" response is the role of which part of the peripheral nervous system? A) Somatic nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Sympathetic nervous system D) Parasympathetic nervous system Answer: C) Sympathetic nervous system
  4. What is the primary function of the parasympathetic nervous system in the human body? A) To prepare the body for action B) To conserve energy and promote rest C) To enhance alertness D) To stimulate the heart Answer: B) To conserve energy and promote rest
  1. In the context of the autonomic nervous system, how does joint innervation contribute to the regulation of organ function? A) It increases muscle tone B) It balances opposing effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic inputs C) It enhances pain perception D) It inhibits hormone release Answer: B) It balances opposing effects of sympathetic and parasympathetic inputs
  2. What is the primary effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on gastrointestinal secretions during the digestive process? A) Decrease secretion B) Increase secretion C) Block motility D) Enhance glucose absorption Answer: B) Increase secretion
  3. When norepinephrine is released from postganglionic neurons, its targets are: A) Only cardiac muscles B) Smooth muscle and glands C) Only skeletal muscles D) Central nervous system neurons Answer: B) Smooth muscle and glands
  4. An action potential is: A) A resting state of a neuron B) A brief reversal of membrane potential that travels along an axon C) A chemical signal between neurons D) The process of neurotransmitter reuptake Answer: B) A brief reversal of membrane potential that travels along an axon
  5. How do beta 1 antagonists primarily affect heart function to manage hypertension? A) Increase heart rate B) Decrease myocardial contractility

A) Bradycardia B) Orthostatic hypotension C) Increased heart rate D) Hyperglycemia Answer: B) Orthostatic hypotension

  1. What is the primary consequence of neurotransmitter binding to its receptor on a postsynaptic neuron? A) Decrease in receptor activity B) Induction of an action potential or response C) Inhibition of neurotransmitter release D) Decrease in synaptic cleft size Answer: B) Induction of an action potential or response
  2. How does the sympathetic nervous system's response to trauma, shock, or pain impact renal function? A) Increases blood flow to kidneys B) Decreases blood flow to kidneys C) Increases urine production D) Enhances glomerular filtration rate Answer: B) Decreases blood flow to kidneys
  3. What does "reuptake" refer to in neurotransmission? A) The process of neurotransmitter release B) The recycling of neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic neuron C) The degradation of neurotransmitters D) The activation of postsynaptic receptors Answer: B) The recycling of neurotransmitters back into the presynaptic neuron
  4. What is the primary consequence of norepinephrine reuptake inhibition in the synaptic cleft? A) Increased degradation of norepinephrine B) Increased availability of norepinephrine to activate receptors C) Decreased neurotransmitter release

D) Reduced receptor sensitivity Answer: B) Increased availability of norepinephrine to activate receptors

  1. Agonism of alpha 1 receptors causes each of the following effects except: A) Vasoconstriction B) Mydriasis (pupil dilation) C) Decreased heart rate D) Increased peripheral resistance Answer: C) Decreased heart rate
  2. What physiological mechanism underlies reflex tachycardia in response to antihypertensive treatment? A) Increased blood volume B) Baroreceptor reflex due to decreased blood pressure C) Decreased norepinephrine levels D) Direct stimulation of the heart Answer: B) Baroreceptor reflex due to decreased blood pressure
  3. How do MAO inhibitors affect norepinephrine? A) They increase its breakdown. B) They prevent its degradation, increasing levels. C) They enhance its reuptake. D) They block its release. Answer: B) They prevent its degradation, increasing levels.
  4. Which of the following is a typical side effect of alpha 1 antagonist medications? A) Hypertension B) Orthostatic hypotension C) Reflex tachycardia D) Decreased urinary output Answer: B) Orthostatic hypotension
  5. What is the primary function of the peripheral nervous system?

C) Constant heart rate during exercise D) Reduced heart rate during rest Answer: A) Increased heart rate following cessation of a beta-blocker

  1. What is the main role of the parasympathetic nervous system in the body? A) Stress response B) Rest and recovery C) Pain management D) Enhancing performance Answer: B) Rest and recovery
  2. Which of the following describes the role of an antagonist? A) Mimics neurotransmitter action B) Blocks receptor activation C) Enhances receptor activity D) Increases neurotransmitter release Answer: B) Blocks receptor activation
  3. What are the therapeutic uses of terazosin? A) Hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia B) Asthma and allergies C) Depression and anxiety D) Pain management Answer: A) Hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia
  4. The fight or flight response is mediated by the: A) Parasympathetic nervous system B) Sympathetic nervous system C) Central nervous system D) Enteric nervous system Answer: B) Sympathetic nervous system
  1. Which of the following adrenergic receptors primarily mediates relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle? A) Alpha- B) Beta- C) Beta- D) Alpha- Answer: C) Beta-
  2. What effect does stimulation of alpha-2 adrenergic receptors have in the central nervous system? A) Increased norepinephrine release B) Decreased norepinephrine release C) Enhanced alertness D) Stimulation of the sympathetic response Answer: B) Decreased norepinephrine release
  3. What is the role of the enteric nervous system? A) Control voluntary muscle movements B) Regulate involuntary actions of the gastrointestinal tract C) Process sensory information D) Coordinate movements of limbs Answer: B) Regulate involuntary actions of the gastrointestinal tract
  4. Which of the following substances primarily mediates communication in the enteric nervous system? A) Serotonin B) Acetylcholine C) Norepinephrine D) Dopamine Answer: B) Acetylcholine
  5. How does sympathetic activation affect blood glucose levels? A) Decreases blood glucose levels