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Baker Act Mod 1 Exam Questions with Solutions, Exams of Psychiatry

Baker Act Mod 1 Exam Questions with Solutions

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2024/2025

Available from 07/02/2025

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Baker Act
Mod 1 Exam Questions with Solutions
1. The Baker Act is fundamentally a bill of rights for persons with
a. substance use disorders.
b. mental health disorders.
c. developmental disabilities.: b. mental health disorders.
2. The Baker Act can be used to authorize examination and treatment for
a. mental health conditions.
b. medical conditions when a patient has refused care.
c. both mental health and medication conditions.: a. mental health conditions.
3. Mental illness, for the purpose of the Baker Act, includes a as
well as the person's clinical condition.
a. functional component
b. family component
c. legal component: a. functional component
4. Within the specified time period for involuntary examination, which of the
following actions is not allowable based on the individual needs of the
person being detained?
a. The receiving facility may petition for involuntary placement.
b. The person may be released for outpatient treatment.
c. The receiving facility may detain the person for an additional 24
hours without a court order.
d.The person may be released.: c. The receiving facility may detain the
person for an additional 24 hours without a court order.
5. The components of an initial mandatory involuntary examination include
all EXCEPT:
a. A review of the document initiating the involuntary examination and trans-
portation form.
b. A designation of the payor for involuntary examination services.
c. A face to face examination of the person in a timely manner to determine if
the person meets criteria for release.
d. A thorough review of any observations of the person's recent behavior.: b.
A designation of the payor for involuntary examination services.
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Baker Act Mod 1 Exam Questions with Solutions

  1. The Baker Act is fundamentally a bill of rights for persons with a. substance use disorders. b. mental health disorders. c. developmental disabilities.: b. mental health disorders.
  2. The Baker Act can be used to authorize examination and treatment for a. mental health conditions. b. medical conditions when a patient has refused care. c. both mental health and medication conditions.: a. mental health conditions.
  3. Mental illness, for the purpose of the Baker Act, includes a as well as the person's clinical condition. a. functional component b. family component c. legal component: a. functional component
  4. Within the specified time period for involuntary examination, which of the following actions is not allowable based on the individual needs of the person being detained? a. The receiving facility may petition for involuntary placement. b. The person may be released for outpatient treatment. c. The receiving facility may detain the person for an additional 24 hours without a court order. d. The person may be released.: c. The receiving facility may detain the person for an additional 24 hours without a court order.
  5. The components of an initial mandatory involuntary examination include all EXCEPT: a. A review of the document initiating the involuntary examination and trans- portation form. b. A designation of the payor for involuntary examination services. c. A face to face examination of the person in a timely manner to determine if the person meets criteria for release. d. A thorough review of any observations of the person's recent behavior.: b. A designation of the payor for involuntary examination services.
  1. A person can be placed under the involuntary examination provisions of the Baker Act if he or she: a. is self-neglectful or dangerous to self or others. b. has refused an examination or is unable to determine it is needed. c. All responses are correct. d. has a mental illness.: c. All responses are correct.
  2. Implied consent is sufficient for consenting to psychiatric admission and to treatment. True False: False
  3. Any Advanced Registered Nurse Practitioner can initiate an involuntary examination under the Baker Act. True False: False
  4. A person cannot be transferred from involuntary to voluntary status unless the initial mandatory involuntary examination has been conducted and doc- umented, and a physician has certified that the person is capable of making well-reasoned, willful and knowing decisions about their mental health care. True False: True
  5. When bringing a person to the hospital for involuntary examination, a law enforcement officer has no responsibility to remain with the patient -- only to present the patient and legal documents before leaving the facility. True False: True
  6. An emergency physician is permitted by law to conduct the involuntary Baker Act examination and to authorize the individual's direct release from the hospital, without consulting with a psychiatrist. True
  1. If people cannot make well-reasoned, willful and knowing decisions about their mental health care, they cannot be on voluntary status even if they give verbal or written agreement to admission or treatment True False: True
  2. Nursing homes and Assisted Living Facilities can send residents to a psy- chiatric hospital on a voluntary basis or to have an involuntary examination initiated if they deem it necessary. True False: False
  3. What is a written statement of a person's wishes regarding mental health and/or medical treatment, and names a representative to make health deci- sions when the person is not unable to do so? a. A Treatment Plan b. A Living Will c. An Advance Directive: c. An Advance Directive
  4. As soon as possible, but no longer than from entering a designat- ed receiving facility on a voluntary or involuntary basis, each person shall be examined by the admitting physician to assess the person's ability to provide express and informed consent to admission and treatment. a. 72 hours b. 36 hours c. 24 hours: c. 24 hours
  5. Of those listed below, who is eligible to consent or refuse to consent to his or her own treatment? a. persons with a court appointed guardian or health care surrogate b. minors who are in inpatient mental health treatment c. adults who are consistently able to make well-reasoned, willful and knowing decisions: c. adults who are consistently able to make well- reasoned, willful and knowing decisions
  6. A person may not be held in a receiving facility for involuntary examination longer than

Select one:

mental health hospital. a. three months; eight months

b. three months; six months c. two months: three months: b. three months; six months

  1. What patient rights do individuals have if they have been involuntarily committed? a. They have all rights except Communication and Custody of Personal Ef- fects. b. They have all rights, unless certain aspects of their rights are deemed as harmful or unsafe. c. They have only the rights authorized by the treatment facility.: b. They have all rights, unless certain aspects of their rights are deemed as harmful or unsafe.
  2. Express and Informed Consent is defined as a. well-reasoned, willful and knowing decision-making about medical or men- tal health treatment. b. the situations that require a physician to act on the patient's behalf when his or her life is at stake. c. the form that is used to ensure that patients read and remember the information presented by the psychiatrist.: a. well-reasoned, willful and knowing decision-making about medical or mental health treatment.
  3. Which of the following professionals CANNOT initiate an involuntary exam? a. Licensed Mental Health Professional b. Physician Assistant c. Law Enforcement Officer: b. Physician Assistant
  4. A transfer evaluation is not necessary for each individual for whom invol- untary placement in a state mental health facility is sought. True False: False
  5. Express and Informed consent requires full disclosure about the proposed treatment to a legally authorized decision-maker in advance of administering the treatment. True False:

ing facility's policies and procedures. True False: True

  1. If a person is competent to consent to psychiatric treatment, he/she is competent to refuse such treatment except when the nature and extent of immediate danger is documented. True False: True
  2. The mandatory components of an involuntary examination include all EXCEPT: Select one or more: a. a brief psychiatric history Incorrect (a face to face examination of the per- son in a timely manner to determine if the person meets criteria for release) b. specific authorization for psychotropic medications Correct c. a thorough review of any observations of the person's recent behavior:
  3. Mod 2: Mod 2
  4. The is a bill of rights for persons of all ages with mental illnesses. Select one: a. Marchman Act b. Writ of Habeas Corpus c. Baker Act d. Ex Parte: c. Baker Act
  5. Who is protected by the Baker Act? Select one: a. anyone receiving mental health services b. anyone under involuntary legal status in a Baker Act Receiving Facility c. anyone with a mental health diagnosis. d. anyone in a Baker Act Receiving Facility, regardless of legal status: d. anyone in a Baker Act Receiving Facility, regardless of legal status
  6. The definition of "mental illness" in the Baker Act includes: a. Autism. b. Learning Disabilities.

c. Substance Abuse. d. Eating Disorders.: d. Eating Disorders.

  1. A mental health professional authorized in the Baker Act can initiate an involuntary examination under which of the following circumstances?

then contact a psychiatrist or psychologist to proceed with a Baker Act or discharge.: c. examine the individual to determine whether they meet Baker Act criteria the proceed accordingly with a Baker Act or discharge.

  1. A person may be ordered by the court to undergo up to of inpatient placement. a. 30 Days b. 120 Days c. 60 Days d. 90 Days: d. 90 Days
  2. When a minor is being prescribed psychotropic medication in a Baker Act Receiving Facility, the administration of this medication must be authorized by: a. a guardian ad litem and the court. b. the legal guardian of the minor and the court. c. the minor and the court.: b. the legal guardian of the minor and the court.
  3. In a Baker Act Receiving Facility, individuals: a. have access to a phone only for local calls. b. have access to a phone 24 hours a day. c. have access to a phone based on unit policies including 24-hour access to contact the Abuse Registry Hotline and Disability Rights Florida. d. have access to a phone only under voluntary status: c. have access to a phone based on unit policies including 24-hour access to contact the Abuse Registry Hotline and Disability Rights Florida.
  4. What is required for Express and Informed Consent? a. full disclosure of the individual regarding any current or past treatments they have had including psychotropic medications and reactions b. the individual or legal decision maker to sign the individual in to the facility voluntarily for treatment c. a signed release of information to discuss any protected health information with anyone other than the individual or legal decision maker d. full disclosure of the benefits and risks of the treatment to the authorized decision maker prior to administration of the treatment: d. full disclosure of the benefits and risks of the treatment to the authorized

decision maker prior to administration of the treatment

True False: True

  1. Which of the following criteria must be met for a minor to be admitted to a Baker Act Receiving Facility under voluntary status? Select all that apply. a. court hearing is conducted to verify that the minor's consent is voluntary. b. have a mental illness, with the definition of mental illness different from adults c. minor agrees to admission d. guardian provides express and informed consent for admission e. have a mental illness, with the definition of mental illness the same as adults f. a minor cannot be admitted under voluntary status: c. minor agrees to admis- sion d. guardian provides express and informed consent for admission e. have a mental illness, with the definition of mental illness the same as adults
  2. Mod 3: Mod 3
  3. Addiction is categorized as this type of disease: a. curable b. incurable c. acute d. chronic: d. chronic
  4. If parental substance abuse is suspected in a child abuse investigation, the child welfare professional needs to take two important initial actions. a. wait to see if the parent shows signs of being "high" and inform his or her supervisor b. remove the child and inform the court c. screen the parent for substance abuse and inform the court d. conduct an in-home examination and screen the parent for substance abuse: d. conduct an in-home examination and screen the parent for substance abuse
  5. The neurotransmitter that is most significant in addiction is: Select one: a. adrenaline b. dopamine c. serotonin d. histamine: b. dopamine
  6. One medication assisted treatment that has significantly positive

a. antabuse b. methadone c. marijuana d. naltrexone: b. methadone

  1. Abuse of this type of prescription drug has risen dramatically in the past five years. a. opioids b. tricyclic antidepressants c. sedatives d. hypnotics: a. opioids
  2. In which of these parenting groups would a caseworker be most likely to find prescription drug abuse? a. Caucasian women b. African-American adolescents c. Hispanic males d. African-American women: a. Caucasian women
  3. If a caseworker hears a parent referring to "Spice," the worker should know that this is a slang term for: a. LSD b. synthetic marijuana substitute c. codeine cough syrup d. Krokodil: b. synthetic marijuana substitute
  4. If a child welfare professional observes that a parent continues to drink or use drugs despite adverse consequences, they would describe the parent as being at this stage on the addiction continuum. a. abuse b. abstinence c. use d. addiction: a. abuse
  5. Co-occurring disorders refers to: a. Disorders that require similar treatment approaches b. Disorders of the same type in multiple family members c. Disorders of comparable severity

d. Substance-related and mental health disorders present in the same individ- ual: d. Substance-related and mental health disorders present in the same individual

  1. It is most likely that a child welfare professional will see a parent's sub- stance-related disorders will present in an individual before mental health disorders appear. True False: False
  2. Trauma-informed care is best defined as: a. A specific screening protocol b. A controlled of treatment setting c. A therapeutic intervention d. An approach to service delivery: d. An approach to service delivery
  3. Who needs trauma-informed care? a. Persons with co-occurring disorders b. People who have been diagnosed with PTSD c. Parents within the child welfare system d. All of the above: d. All of the above
  4. The approach that best reflects appropriate services for parents with co-occurring disorders is known as: a. Care Coordination b. No Wrong Door c. Simultaneous Care d. Collaborative Care: b. No Wrong Door
  5. Child welfare case work should occur: a. Simultaneously with substance-abuse or mental health treatment services b. Once an appropriate medication regimen has been established c. Only after a parent completes substance abuse treatment d. Before substance abuse or mental health treatment is begun: a. Simultane- ously with substance-abuse or mental health treatment services
  6. Compared to people without mental health disorders, how likely are people with mental disorders to commit an act of violence?