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BIO 2050 Genetics Final Exam 2024/ 2025
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Which is the correct order of stages in the cell cycle? a. G1, S, prophase, metaphase, anaphase b. S, G1, prophase, metaphase, anaphase c. prophase, S, G1, metaphase, anaphase d. S, G1, anaphase, prophase, metaphase a. G1, S, prophase, metaphase, anaphase Which of the following events take place in metaphase I? a. crossing over occurs b. the chromosomes condense c. homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate d. individual chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate c. homologous pairs of chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate Chromosome duplications often result in abnormal phenotypes because: a. developmental processes depend on the relative amounts of proteins encoded by different genes b. extra copies of the genes within the duplicated region do not pair in meiosis
c. the chromosome is more likely to break when it loops in meiosis d. extra DNA must be replicated, which slows down the cell division a. developmental processes depend on the relative amounts of proteins encoded by different genes A dicentric chromosome is produced when crossing over takes place in an individual heterozygous for which type of chromosome rearrangement? a. duplication b. deletion c. paracentric inversion d. pericentric inversion c. paracentric inversion What is the outcome of a Robertsonian translocation? a. two acrocentric chromosomes b. one metacentric chromosome and one chromosome with two very short arms c. one metacentric and one acrocentric chromosome d. two metacentric chromosomes b. one metacentric chromosome and one chromosome with two very short arms A diploid organism has 2n = 36 chromosomes. How many chromosomes will be found in a trisomic member of this species?
How did Mendel know that each of his pea plants carried two alleles encoding a characteristic? The traits encoded by both alleles appeared in the F2 progeny If the probability of being blood-type A is 1/8 and the probability of blood-type O is 1/2, what is the probability of being either blood-type A or O? a. 5/ b. 1/ c. 1/ d. 1/ a. 5/ addition rule: 1/8 + 1/2 = 1/8 + 4/ 8 = 5/ A chi-square test comparison observed and expected numbers a progeny is carried out, and the probability associated with the calculated chi-square value is 0.72. What does this probability represent? Probability that the difference between observed and expected numbers could be due to chance
Recessive traits often appear in pedigrees in which there have been consanguineous matings because of these traits: a. tend to skip generations b. appear only when both parents carry a copy of the allele for the trait, which is more likely when the parents are related c. usually arise in children born to parents who are unaffected d. appear equally in males and females b. appear only when both parents carry a copy of the allele for the trait, which is more likely when the parents are related In humans, what will be the phenotype of a person with XX XY sex chromosomes? a. turner syndrome b. klinefelter syndrome c. poly-X-female b. klinefelter syndrome How does incomplete dominance differ from incomplete penetrance? a. incomplete dominance refers to alleles at the same locus; incomplete penetrance refers to alleles at different loci b. incomplete dominance ranges from 0% to 50%; incomplete penetrance ranges from 51% to 99% c. in incomplete dominance, the heterozygote is intermediate between the homozygotes; in incomplete penetrance, heterozygotes express phenotypes of both homozygotes
a. that all life forms are genetically related b. that research findings on one organism's gene function can often be applied to other organisms c. that gene from one organism can often exist and thrive in another organism d. all of the above d. all of the above Would a horse make a good model genetic organism? why or why not? No, because horses are expensive to house, feed, and propagate, they have too few progeny, and their generation time is too long. How did developments in cytology in the nineteenth century contribute to our modern understanding of genetics? developments in the 1800s led to the identification of parts of the cell, including the cell nucleus and chromosomes. Diploid cells have: a. two chromosomes b. two sets of chromosomes c. one set of chromosomes d. two pairs of homologous chromosomes b. two sets of chromosomes
Each generation, 10 random individuals migrate from population A to population B. what will happen to allelic frequency q as a result of migration when q is equal in populations A and B? a. q in A will decrease b. q in B will increase c. q will not change in either A or B d. q in B will become q c. q will not change in either A or B Which of the following is an example of genetic drift? a. allele g for fat production increases in a small population because birds with more body fat have higher survivorship in a harsh winter b. random mutation increases the frequency of allele A in one population but not in another c. allele R reaches a frequency of 1.0 because individuals with genotype rr are sterile d. allele m is lost when a virus kills all but a few individuals and just by chance, none of the survivors possess allele m d. allele m is lost when a virus kills all but a few individuals and just by chance, none of the survivors possess allele m . The average number of offspring produced by three genotypes are: GG=6, Gg=3, gg=2. What is the fitness of Gg? a. 3. b. 0.
b. the sugar of RNA has a hydroxyl group that is not found in the sugar of DNA c. RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine d. DNA's sugar has a phosphorous atom; RNA's sugar does not b. the sugar of RNA has a hydroxyl group that is not found in the sugar of DNA The antiparallel nature of DNA refers to: a. its charged phosphate groups b. the pairing of bases on one strand with bases on the other strand c. the formation of hydrogen bonds between bases from opposite strands d. the opposite direction of the two strands of nucleotides d. the opposite direction of the two strands of nucleotides . A DNA molecule 300 bp long has 20 complete rotations. This DNA molecule is : a. positively supercoiled b. negatively supercoiled c. relaxed b. negatively supercoiled How does bacterial DNA differ from eukaryotic DNA? bacterial DNA is not complexed with histone proteins and is circular
Neutralizing their positive charges would have which effect on the histone proteins? a. they would bind the DNA tighter b. they would bind less tightly to the DNA c. they would no longer be attracted to one another d. they would cause supercoiling of the DNA b. they would bind less tightly to the DNA Which of the following is a characteristic of DNA sequences at the telomeres? a. one strand consists of guanine and adenine or thymine nucleotides b. they consist of repeated sequences c. one strand protrudes beyond the other, creating some single-stranded DNA at the end d. all of the above d. all of the above Most of the genes that encode proteins are found in : a. unique-sequence DNA b. moderately repetitive DNA c. highly repetitive DNA d. all of the above
- initiator proteins
- helicase
- single-stranded-binding protein
- DNA gyrase Primers are synthesized where on the lagging strand? a. only at the 5' end of the newly synthesized strand b. only at the 3' end of the newly synthesized strand c. at the beginning of every Okazaki fragment d. at multiple places within an Okazaki fragment c. at the beginning of every Okazaki fragment Which bacterial enzyme removes the primers? a. primase b. DNA polymerase I c. DNA polymerase II d. ligase b. DNA polymerase I What would be the result if an organism's telomerase were mutated and non- functional?
a. no DNA replication would take place b. the DNA polymerase enzyme would stall the telomerase c. chromosomes would shorten each generation d. RNA primers could not be removed c. chromosomes would shorten each generation Why is recombination important? Recombination is important for generating genetic variation. Which class of RNA is correctly paired with its function? a. small nuclear RNA (snRNA): processes rRNA b. transfer RNA (tRNA): attaches to an amino acid c. microRNA (miRNA): carries information for the amino acid sequence of a protein d. ribosomal RNA (rRNA): carries out RNA interference b. transfer RNA (tRNA): attaches to an amino acid . What is the difference between the template strand and the non-template strand? the template strand is the DNA strand that is transcribed into an RNA molecule; the non-template strand is not transcribed
a. one of the three nucleotides that encode an amino acid b. three nucleotides that encode an amino acid c. three amino acids that encode a nucleotide d. one of four bases in DNA b. three nucleotides that encode an amino acid Through wobble, a single ___ can pair with more than one ___. a. codon ; anticodon b. group of three nucleotides in DNA ; codon in mRNA c. tRNA ; amino acid d. anticodon ; codon d. anticodon ; codon Amino acids bind to which part of the tRNA? a. anticodon b. DHU arm c. 3' end d. 5' end c. 3' end In elongation, the creation of peptide bonds between amino acids is catalyzed by..
a. rRNA b. protein in the small subunit c. protein in the large subunit d. tRNA a. rRNA In a polyribosome, the polypeptides associated with which ribosomes will be the longest? a. those at the 5' end of mRNA b. those at the 3' end of mRNA c. those in the middle of mRNA d. all polypeptides will be the same length b. those at the 3' end of mRNA Which of the following changes is a transition base substitution? a. adenine is replaced by thymine b. cytosine is replaced by adenine c. guanine is replaced by adenine d. three nucleotide pairs are inserted into DNA c. guanine is replaced by adenine
In the dideoxy-sequencing reaction, what terminated DNA synthesis at a particular base? a. the absence of a base on the ddNTP halts the DNA polymerase b. the ddNTP causes a break in the sugar-phosphate backbone c. DNA polymerase will not incorporate a ddNTP into the growing DNA strand d. the absence of a 3' - OH group on the ddNTP prevents the addition of another nucleotide d. the absence of a 3' - OH group on the ddNTP prevents the addition of another nucleotide A geneticist is interested in the immune function of mice and induces random mutations in a number of genes in mice and then determines which of the resulting mutant mice have impaired immune function. this is an example of: a. forward genetics b. reverse genetics c. both forward and reverse genetics d. neither forward nor reverse genetics b. reverse genetics What is the difference between a structural gene and a regulator gene? a. structural genes are transcribed into mRNA, but regulator genes are not b. structural genes have complex structures; regulator genes have simple structure c. structural genes encode proteins that function in the structure of the cell; regulator genes carry out metabolic reactions
d. structural genes encode proteins; regulator genes control the transcription of structural genes d. structural genes encode proteins; regulator genes control the transcription of structural genes In a negative repressible operon, the regulator protein is synthesized as: a. an active activator b. an inactive activator c. an active repressor d. an inactive repressor d. an inactive repressor In the presence of allolactose, the lac repressor: a. binds to the operator b. binds to the promoter c. cannot bind to the operator d. binds to the regulator gene c. cannot bind to the operator In the TRP operon, what happens to the TRP repressor in the absence of tryptophan? a. it binds to the operator and represses transcription
