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Biology Exam Q&A, Exams of Biology

A series of questions and answers related to various topics in biology, including metabolism, energy transfer, nucleic acids, and microscopy. The questions cover a range of difficulty levels and are suitable for exam preparation or study notes.

Typology: Exams

2023/2024

Available from 01/25/2024

VerifiedBiologists
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True or False: As movement requires energy, metabolism can be defined as a controlled
set of biochemical reactions that occur in only motile organisms in order to maintain
life.
False. Metabolism occurs in all living organisms, not just those that move.
2. True or False: Enzymes slow down chemical reactions to conserve energy.
False. Enzyme catalyze (speed up) chemical reactions.
3. What is a cofactor? And give a general example.
A cofactor is a small chemical component that assists an enzyme during the catalysis
1. Define anabolism.
Anabolism is the process of building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from small
molecular units into much larger complexes.
2. In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be
active?
Catabolism would be active as proteins are made up of amino acids. Therefore the process
described (proteins into amino acids) is the breakdown, or catabolism of protein.
BIOD: MODULE EXAMS Q & A.Graded A plus
EXAM MODULE II
Answer Key
Exam Page 3
Answer Key
1. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP.
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True or False: As movement requires energy, metabolism can be defined as a controlled set of biochemical reactions that occur in only motile organisms in order to maintain life. False. Metabolism occurs in all living organisms, not just those that move.

  1. True or False: Enzymes slow down chemical reactions to conserve energy. False. Enzyme catalyze (speed up) chemical reactions.
  2. What is a cofactor? And give a general example. A cofactor is a small chemical component that assists an enzyme during the catalysis
  3. Define anabolism. Anabolism is the process of building up or biosynthesis of macromolecules from small molecular units into much larger complexes.
  4. In order to convert proteins into amino acids which metabolic process would be active? Catabolism would be active as proteins are made up of amino acids. Therefore the process described (proteins into amino acids) is the breakdown, or catabolism of protein.

EXAM MODULE II

Answer Key

Exam Page 3

Answer Key

1. Describe the energy transfer process relative to both ATP and ADP.

  1. The catabolism of a single molecule of glucose goes through what 3 distinct transitions? The breakdown of glucose goes through (1) Glycolysis then (2) Fermentation or Respiration and finally through (3) the electron transport chain (ETC).
  2. What is the most energetic transition in the catabolism of glucose? The electron transport chain yields 34 ATP while both glycolysis and fermentation (or respiration) each yield only 2 ATP.
  3. Identify the reactants of the following chemical equation: Glucose + 2NAD+ → 2 NADH + 2

Exam Page 4

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ATP has the energy (phosphate group) to donate while ADP can accept energy in the form of a phosphate group. Thus, ATP can be reduced (ATP →ADP + Pi) while ADP can be built into ATP (ADP + Pi →ATP).

  1. An organism that derives its energy (generates ATP) from photons of light is called a ? Phototrophic microorganism. An organism that derives its energy by removing electrons from elemental sulfur would be classified as a? Lithotroph
  2. A reactive intermediate would be present in which phosphorylation process? A. Photophosphorylation B. Substrate-level phosphorylation C. Oxidative phosphorylation B. The chemical compound losing the phosphate group is referred to as the phosphorylated reactive intermediate.
  1. True or False. Plants, algae and bacteria all contain chloroplasts. False. Chloroplasts are specific to algae and plants only.
  2. The process of carbon fixation begins with which of the following reactants: select all that apply. A. ATP B. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate C. CO 2 D. NADPH E. H 2 O A, C, D, and E. Carbon fixation uses the ATP/NADPH produced during light reactions to convert CO2 and H2O into useful sources of energy (carbohydrates).
  3. What is one of the main functions of light reactions? Similar to the electron transport chain, one of its main functions is to generate a proton concentration gradient to generate ATP.

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  1. For the catabolism of proteins and lipids, which of the following enzymes are used? Select all that apply. A. Ligases B. Proteases C. Transferases D. Lipases B and D. Proteases breakdown proteins while lipases breakdown lipids.
  2. True or False. The β-oxidation pathway catabolizes the fatty acid chains of lipids. True
  1. How many turns (or repititions) of the Calvin Cycle are required to generate one molecule of glucose? Six.
  2. Complete the following equation by placing the appropriate numbers where indicated. CO 2 + ATP + NADPH + H 20 → C 6 H 12 O 6 + ADP + NADP+ 6 CO 2 + 18 ATP + 12 NADPH + 12 H 20 → C 6 H 12 O 6 + 18 ADP + 12 NADP+
  3. Match the following reactions to its corresponding enzyme: A + B → A-B A-B → A + B
  4. A-^ + B →A + B-
  5. Ab + C → A + Cb A- Lyases B- Transferases C- Oxioreductaces D- Hydrolases E- Ligases F- Isomerases 1E 1. A + B → A-B 2A 2. A-B → A + B Ligases Lyases

Exam Page 9

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  1. True or False: Dark reactions can occur in the presence or absence of light. True. The term ‘dark reactions’ (also known as the Calvin Cycle) simply denotes the second stage in photosynthesis—dark reactions do not actually require darkness in order to occur.
  1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles? There are two major types of nucleic acids: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and RNA (ribonucleic acid). Nucleic acids are chemical molecules that carry genetic information

Exam Page 3

1. What are the two major types of nucleic acids and their roles?

DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid): Contains the genetic material as well as heredity characteristics

found in living organisms. RNA (ribonucleic acid): its role is for decoding the sequence of

heredity information found in DNA

Answer Key

  1. Complete the following RNA strand and indicate how many bonds are formed for each complementary pair: 3’ GGUCAUCG 5’ 5’ CC AGC 3’ 3’ GGUCAUCG 5’ 5’ CCAGUAGC 3’ There are 2 bonds formed between A and U, and 3 bonds between G and C.
  2. The plasma membrane (select all that are true): A. Only restricts movement of materials into the cell B. Is often a bilayer comprised of lipids C. Cannot prevent essential nutrients from escaping D. Contains hydrophobic tails pointing inward B and D
  3. Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen atoms come together to form what primary macromolecule? Give an example.

Exam Page 4

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Exam Page 5

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Answer Key

1. True of False: Eukaryotic cells do not have a nucleus

the cell. DNA contains a vast amount of hereditary information and is responsible for the inheritable characteristics of living organisms. RNA is responsible for deciphering the hereditary information in DNA and using it to synthesize proteins.

  1. Cell walls are found in which of the following (select all that apply): A. Plants B. Fungi C. Bacteria D. Mammalian cells E. Algae A, B, C, E
  2. The function of the ribosome is (select all that apply): A. Lipid synthesis B. Protein synthesis C. To produce energy (ATP) D. Protein modification and distribution E. Waste disposal via hydrolytic enzymes B. Ribosomes are located in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells and in the ER of eukaryotic cells.

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  1. A defining characteristic of fungi is the presence of chitin in the cell walls. Which of following also contain chitin? Select all that apply. A. Mushrooms B. Bacteria C. Yeast D. Molds A, C and D all contain chitin.
  2. True or False: A defining characteristic of Protista is the inability of colonies to form tissue layers.

1. Identify the following cellular components by matching the number with the

description.

. A micrometer is defined as A. 10 - B. 10 - C. -9 (^) D. 10 - B. A micrometer is one-millionth of a meter.

  1. True or False: A nanometer is longer than a micrometer.
  2. Resolution and contrast are two critical factors that influence your ability to see an object. Explain each. Resolution refers to the distance between two objects at which the objects still can be seen as separate. Poor or low resolution means two (or more) objects may appear as one. Contrast is the difference in light absorbance between two objects. Poor contrast gives a high background and makes the visualization of multiple objects difficult. For instance, trying to identify 2 dark colored objects at night (low light = low contrast) versus the same 2 objects in the middle of a sunny afternoon (bright light against 2 dark objects = high
  3. Assuming a constant (non-adjustable) light source power, identify the part of the microscope you would adjust to limit the amount of light entering the microscope.

EXAM MODULE 3

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3 E

4 G

5 D

  1. True or False: A cell that is adherent, flat (thin) and unstained is easily identified using bright field microscopy. False. Adherent, flat cells are almost invisible due to the limits on both resolution and contrast.
  2. Which of the following could be seen clearly by the unaided eye? Select all that apply. A. Bacteria with diameter of 24 μm B. Protozoa with diameter of 150 μm C. Virus with a diameter of 0.2 μm D. Skin cell with diameter of 1500 μm
  3. Label the following unmarked microscope components (numbered arrows) by matching it with the components provided (letters).

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Select all that apply. A. Objective B. Condenser C. Iris diaphragm D. Eye piece C. The iris controls the amount of light that passes through the sample and into the objective lens. Thus, it can be adjusted (opened or closed) to alter the amount of light.

  1. What is the total magnification (relative to your eye) of a sample imaged with a 60x objective and a 10x eyepiece? Show your math. 60 x 10 = 600x magnification

A. Stage

B. Fine Adjustment Knob

C. Iris Diaphragm

D. Neck

E. Condenser Lens

F. Eyepiece

G. Objective

H. Base

I. Coaxial Controls

1F

2D

  1. For each of the following questions select from the list below the single best answer: Phase-Contrast Dark Field Fluoresce nce Confocal This type of microscope is best suited for visualizing GFP, RFP and YFP proteins. Fluorescence
  2. This type of microscope can provide detailed images of live cells without staining. Phase-Contrast
  3. This type of microscope is used to greatly increase the contrast between samples and background by reflecting light off of the specimen. Dark Field
  4. This type of microscope is capable of capturing images in multiple focal planes, rendering a specimen in 3D

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3B

4G

5A

6H

  1. You want to observe the size and shape of a cell. What is the easiest staining technique that you could perform? Name at least one dye you would use during this process. Simple stain. You could use any of the following: methylene blue, crystal violet, safranin or fuschin.
  2. You suspect a patient may have TB. Once a sample has been obtained it is sent off to the lab for an acid-fast stain. If the patient were infected with TB, describe what you would expect to see on the stained slide. You would expect to see red cells (TB+) on a blue background (TB negative).
  3. True or False: If a patient is suspected of having malaria, a Giemsa stain would be an appropriate differential test to perform. True. Giemsa stains are often used in the clinical setting to aid in the diagnosis of blood True or False: Growth media is best suited for distinguishing between two similar species of bacteria. False. Growth media is designed to simply support (and not restrict) microbial growth.
  4. A researcher is asked to determine which of two vials contains E coli and which contains Salmonella. Knowing both are Gram-Negative while only one of

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EXAM MODULE 4

True.

  1. True or False: If you wish to study the motility of an organism you cannot heat fix, but you can chemically fix the specimen. False. Both heat and chemical fixation strategies will kill the cell, making motility observations impossible.
  1. True or False: LB agar is classified as a selective, non-differential media. False. LB agar is the most basic type of agar and like LB media supports the growth of virtually all microbes without restriction.
  2. What is agar used for in microbiology? Agar is used to create a solid, smooth surface on which microbes can grow.
  3. Match the following hemolytic class with its description of activity.

Exam Page 2

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Exam Page 3

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1. Alpha hemolysis

B A.^ No^ hemolytic^ activity

2. Beta hemolysis

C B.^ Incomplete^ hemolytic^ activity

A. Growth media B. Differential media C. Selective media D. Selective and Differential media B. Differential media distinguishes between two, often related, microbes.

  1. What are the requirements of a fastidious microbe? A fastidious microbe is an organism with complex growth requirements such that if absent it will not grow. Enriched medias thus contain these specific and essential nutrients required for the growth of a particular subset of microorganisms.