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FINAL EXAM – General Biology 1 - 04 SAMPLE December 19, 2023
Prof. Bušić
- Which of the following statements best describes Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?
A) Darwin's theory was the first to describe the ideas of special creation.
B) Darwin's theory proved that individuals acclimated to their environment over time.
C) Darwin's theory emphasized that populations vary and change over time.
D) Darwin's theory was the first to propose that species changed over time.
- Which of the following statements best describes Linnaeus' method of classifying organisms?
A) Linnaeus grouped organisms according to the linear hierarchy of the scala naturae.
B) Linnaeus grouped organisms into increasingly more inclusive categories.
C) Linnaeus grouped organisms into increasingly more complex categories.
D) Linnaeus grouped organisms according to their geographical location.
- Which of the following statements is most consistent with data obtained from the fossil record?
A) Older strata carry fossils that differ greatly from living organisms.
B) Geologic changes occur quickly on Earth.
C) Unused body parts decrease in size.
D) Organisms have an innate drive to increase in complexity.
- Which of the following statements is accurate if we view evolution both as a pattern and a process?
A) To study evolution as a pattern we draw on information from many other scientific fields, while to study evolution as a
process we study factors that cause changes in populations.
B) To study evolution as a pattern we study factors that cause changes in populations, while to study evolution as a process
we draw on information from many other scientific fields.
C) To study evolution as a pattern we rely on data from the past, while to study evolution as a process we study data from
current day populations.
D) To study evolution as a pattern we study data from current day populations, while to study evolution as a process we
rely on data from the past.
5 ) The cow Bos primigenius (which is farmed for meat and milk) has a smaller brain and larger eyes than closely related
species of wild ungulates. Which of the following statements best describes the process that led to differences between
domesticated/farmed cows and their wild relatives?
A) Natural selection resulted in changes in the wild species because humans preyed upon them.
B) Natural selection resulted in changes in the lineage leading to domesticated cows because humans provided food for
their cows.
C) Artificial selection resulted in changes in the lineage leading to domesticated cows because humans wanted animals
with high milk output and high muscle content.
D) Artificial selection resulted in changes in the lineage leading to domesticated cows because humans wanted animals
that would see predators and escape from them.
6 ) Which of these conditions do NOT occur in populations evolving due to natural selection?
A) The populations vary in traits that can be inherited.
B) Some inherited traits increase reproductive success.
C) Individuals pass on most traits that they acquire during their lifetime.
D) More offspring are produced than can survive.
7 ) Use the diagram to answer the next question.
Which of the following conclusions is consistent with the information in the evolutionary tree?
A) The amnion occurs in mammals, birds, and lizards.
B) The amnion occurs in all organisms that have digit-bearing limbs.
C) The amnion is a membrane that surrounds developing embryos.
D) Feathers contribute to temperature regulation in birds.
In this diagram, each fork represents which of the following ideas?
A) groups of living organisms
B) groups of extinct organisms
C) the most recent common ancestor of the subsequent species
D) morphologic gaps in the fossil record
17 ) Which of the following statements about vestigial structures is accurate?
A) A vestigial structure in species A can be homologous to a functional structure in species B.
B) A vestigial structure in species A can be analogous to a functional structure in Species B.
C) A vestigial structure in species A is likely an example of convergent evolution with a structure in species B.
D) A vestigial structure in species A did not have a function in past ancestors.
18 ) Which of the following statements is most accurate in comparing scientific theories and scientific hypotheses?
A) Scientific theories are nearly the same things as scientific hypotheses.
B) Scientific theories are supported by, and make sense of, many observations, whereas scientific hypotheses are narrow,
testable ideas.
C) Scientific theories cannot be tested because they relate to events that occurred only once, but scientific hypotheses
can be tested because they relate to events that occur now.
D) Scientific theories predict future events but scientific hypotheses describe past events.
1 9) Of the following anatomical structures, which is most homologous to the bones in the wings of a bird?
A) bones in the hind limbs of a kangaroo
B) chitinous struts in the wings of a butterfly
C) bony rays in the tail fin of a flying fish
D) bones in the flippers of a whale
2 0) Structures as different as human arms, bat wings, and dolphin flippers contain many of the same bones, which develop
from similar embryonic tissues. These structural similarities are an example of ________.
A) homology
B) convergent evolution
C) the evolution of common structure as a result of common function
D) the evolution of similar appearance as a result of common function
2 1) Over long periods of time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive
systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses?
A) Natural selection cannot account for losses, but can only account for new structures and functions.
B) Natural selection accounts for these losses by the principle of use and disuse.
C) Under particular circumstances that persisted for long periods, natural selection reduced each of these structures
because they presented greater costs than benefits.
D) The ancestors of these organisms experienced harmful mutations that forced them to lose these structures.
2 2) Which of the following observations most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth?
A) All organisms require energy.
B) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code.
C) All organisms reproduce.
D) All organisms show variation that is inherited.
23 ) It has been observed that organisms on many islands are different from, but closely related to, similar forms found on
the nearest continent. Which of the following possible conclusions is best derived from this observation?
A) Island forms are descended from mainland forms.
B) Common environments are inhabited by the same organisms.
C) Island forms and mainland forms have identical gene pools.
D) The island forms and mainland forms are converging.
24 ) Given what we know about evolutionary biology, which of the following places would be the most likely to have the
highest number of species that are unique to the area (that is, that had evolved in that place). Assume that the conditions
have existed for at least a few million years.
A) a shallow estuary on a warm-water coast
B) a single mountain in the middle of a continent
C) a grassland, with extreme climatic conditions, in the center of a large continent
D) an isolated group of ocean islands
25 ) Which of the following statements about evolutionary trees is accurate?
A) Evolutionary trees are considered evolutionary hypotheses.
B) Evolutionary trees are considered evolutionary theories.
C) Evolutionary trees are developed when they are confirmed by fossil evidence.
D) Evolutionary trees cannot be tested by gathering more evidence.
- Use the diagram to answer the next question.
Which of the following sequences is the one that most likely occurred in evolution of whales?
A) elongation of the femur, loss of pelvis, loss of foot
B) reduction of pelvis, loss of foot, elongation of tibia
C) shortening of foot, reduction of pelvis, shortening of femur
D) shortening of femur, reduction in foot, loss of tibia
26 ) Imagine that you are an explorer who has discovered an isolated land mass in the middle of the Pacific Ocean. You
find a predator that resembles a North American wolf except that it lays eggs. You name it the "mid-ocean wolf." The
physical similarity between the mid-ocean wolf and the North American wolf is most likely due to which of the following
factors?
A) similarities in prey species
B) natural selection that favors the evolution of homologous structures
C) inheritance of the characteristics from a recent common ancestor
D) natural selection that favors similar traits for organisms with similar ecological roles
27 ) Continental drift (plate tectonics) has moved continents around the globe. Which of the following predictions would
be most likely?
A) Most species will occur only on one continent.
B) No species will occur on all continents.
C) The most recently separated continents will have the most closely related species.
D) There is not enough information to make a prediction.
36 ) Harmful mutations occur in both diploid and haploid organisms. Which of the following statements about the
abundance of harmful mutations in diploid and haploid organisms is accurate?
A) There are more harmful mutations in populations of diploids than in populations of haploids, because the mutations
are protected from selection in diploid heterozygotes.
B) There are more harmful mutations in populations of diploids than in populations of haploids, because the mutations
are protected from selection in diploid homozygotes.
C) There are more harmful mutations in populations of haploids than in populations of diploids, because the mutations
are protected from selection in haploid heterozygotes.
D) There are more harmful mutations in populations of haploids than in populations of diploids, because the mutations
are protected from selection in haploid homozygotes.
37 ) Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder in humans where the person has two homozygous recessive alleles for the gene. If
the disease is left untreated, it causes severe health problems in the individual. If 9 in 10,000 newborn babies have the
disease, what are the expected frequencies of the dominant ( A
) and recessive ( A
) alleles according to the Hardy-
Weinberg equation?
A) f( A
) = 0.9997, f( A
B) f( A
) = 0.9800, f( A
C) f( A
) = 0.9700, f( A
D) f( A
) = 0.9604, f( A
38 ) Suppose 64% of the individuals in a remote mountain village can taste phenylthiocarbamide (PTC) and must, therefore,
have at least one copy of the dominant PTC taster allele. If this population conforms to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for
this gene, what percent of the population must be heterozygous for this trait?
A) 16%
B) 32%
C) 40%
D) 48%
39 ) If individuals tend to mate within a subset of the population, there is ________.
A) no selection
B) no genetic drift
C) abundant gene flow
D) no random mating
40 ) The effect of which Hardy-Weinberg condition is affected by population size?
A) selection
B) genetic drift
C) gene flow
D) mutation
41 ) Which one of the following conditions would most likely cause allele frequencies to change by chance?
A) large population
B) small populations
C) mutation
D) gene flow
42 ) Which of the following statements is accurate with regard to a population in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?
A) Allele frequencies should not change from one generation to the next.
B) Natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift are acting equally to change allele frequencies.
C) Two alleles are present in equal proportions.
D) Individuals within the population are evolving.
43 ) The value of the Hardy-Weinberg equation is that it allows scientists to perform which of the following assessments?
A) to detect whether an evolutionary force is acting on a population
B) to provide proof that natural selection is acting
C) to predict the % of people in a population that is homozygous for the recessive allele that causes a genetic disease
D) to measure the effects of gene flow among populations
44 ) In which of the following situations would genetic drift most likely cause evolution?
A) The size of the gene pool increases because a smaller group establishes a new population.
B) Chance events cause allele frequencies to fluctuate unpredictably.
C) A sudden change in the environment drastically increases the population size.
D) The population has inherited traits better suited to a different environment.
45 ) Which of the following processes best describes the cause of a bottleneck effect?
A) chance events that change allele frequency
B) transfer of alleles to the next generation in proportions that differ from the current generation
C) transfer of alleles in and out of a population due to movement of fertile individuals
D) drastic decrease in the size of the population
46 ) Studies of Neanderthal DNA revealed that there are more similarities to non-African DNA than reference sequences
from West Africans. Additionally, scientists found that Neanderthal DNA is as closely related to East Asians as to
Europeans. These patterns indicate that interbreeding occurred before human migration further east. Which evolutionary
force most likely generated these results?
A) adaptive evolution
B) gene flow
C) genetic drift
D) nonrandom mating
47 ) The Dunkers are a religious group that moved from Germany to Pennsylvania in the mid-1700s. They do not marry
with members outside their own immediate community. Today, the Dunkers are genetically unique and differ in allele
frequencies at many loci from all other populations, including those in their original homeland. Which of the following
mechanisms most likely explains the genetic uniqueness of this population?
A) population bottleneck and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
B) heterozygote advantage and stabilizing selection
C) mutation and natural selection
D) founder effect and genetic drift
48 ) The following questions are based on information from Yeh P., Rapid evolution of a sexually selected trait following
population establishment in a novel habitat, Evolution 58(1):166-74 (2004).
The Hawaiian Islands are the tops of undersea volcanoes in the Pacific Ocean. The oldest islands are the northwest-most
islands. The islands get progressively younger to the southeast. Hawaii, the "big island," arose from the ocean less than
one million years ago. Which of the following processes likely most strongly influenced the evolution of life on the big
island when organisms first arrived?
A) the bottleneck effect
B) sexual selection
C) habitat differentiation
D) the founder effect
49 ) An earthquake decimates a ground-squirrel population, killing 98% of the squirrels. The surviving population has
broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, which of the
following processes most likely caused the change?
A) directional selection
B) disruptive selection
C) a founder event
D) a bottleneck effect
In a very large population, a measurable trait has the distribution pattern shown in the diagram. Assume the trait is
genetically determined. If there is no gene flow and the curve shifts to the left or to the right, which of the following
processes is most likely occurring?
A) immigration or emigration
B) directional selection
C) disruptive selection
D) genetic drift
58 ) In those parts of equatorial Africa where the malaria parasite is most common, the sickle-cell allele constitutes 20% of
the β hemoglobin alleles in the human gene pool.
In the United States, the parasite that causes malaria is not present, but the sickle cell allele is present in many African-
Americans whose ancestors were from equatorial Africa. Which of the following processes are most likely acting on the
sickle-cell allele in the United States, and in equatorial Africa?
A) stabilizing selection in the United States; disruptive selection in equatorial Africa
B) disruptive selection in the United States; stabilizing selection in equatorial Africa
C) directional selection in the United States; disruptive selection in equatorial Africa
D) directional selection in the United States; stabilizing selection in equatorial Africa
59 ) Which of the following statements about evolutionary forces is accurate?
A) Unlike the other evolutionary forces, gene flow is the only force that causes populations to become more different.
B) Unlike the other evolutionary forces, mutation is the only force that decreases genetic variability.
C) Unlike the other evolutionary forces, nonrandom mating is the only force that changes allele frequency.
D) Unlike the other evolutionary forces, natural selection is the only force that improves the match between the organism
and its environment.
60 ) Natural selection changes allele frequencies because some ________ survive and reproduce better than others.
A) alleles
B) loci
C) species
D) individuals
61 ) No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The main source of genetic variation among humans
is ________.
A) new mutations that occurred in the preceding generation
B) genetic drift
C) the reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction
D) environmental effects
62 ) If the nucleotide variability of a locus equals 0%, what is the gene variability and number of alleles at that locus?
A) gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 0
B) gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 1
C) gene variability = 0%; number of alleles = 2
D) gene variability > 0%; number of alleles = 2
63 ) One population of a species has 25 individuals, all with genotype AA ; a second population of this species has 40
individuals, all with genotype aa. Assume that these populations live far apart but in similar environmental conditions.
Based on this information, the observed genetic variation most likely resulted from ________.
A) genetic drift
B) gene flow
C) nonrandom mating
D) directional selection
64 ) If biological species are defined in terms of reproductive compatibility, which of the following factors determines the
formation of a new species?
A) gene flow
B) reproductive isolation
C) hybrid formation
D) gene pool expansion
65 ) Which of the following provides an example of a mechanical isolation as a prezygotic barrier?
A) two species live in different habitats
B) two species mate at different times
C) two species share courtship activities
D) two snails have shells that spiral in different directions
66 ) Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have different courtship songs. If the cricket populations
were to contact each other in the wild, the different courtship songs would most likely function as which type of
reproductive isolating mechanism?
A) temporal
B) postzygotic
C) behavioral
D) gametic
67 ) Almost all peppered moths in England were light colored before the Industrial Revolution. However, some dark forms
were collected–the dark color is determined by a single, dominant allele of one gene. The bark of trees became darker
during the Industrial Revolution in areas where heavy coal use in factories caused pollution. By about 1900, approximately
90% of the moths around industrial areas were dark, whereas light-colored moths were still abundant elsewhere.
Apparently, birds could readily find the light moths against the dark trees in industrial areas and, therefore, were eating
more light moths. Recently, use of cleaner fuels has resulted in tree bark becoming lighter again and the dark-colored
moths have been disappearing. Which of the following statements best explains whether we should consider the forms
different species?
A) They are different species–as shown by the fact that natural selection has affected the frequency of the two forms.
B) They are different species–as shown by the fact that the two forms are reproductively isolated by habitat.
C) They are NOT different species–as shown by the fact that they live in the same habitats.
D) They are NOT different species–as shown by the fact that they can interbreed.
68 ) Which of the following statements best describes unity within a species?
A) Members of a given species can be distinguished by similarity in body shape and other structural features.
B) Members of a given species have the potential to interbreed in nature and produce viable, fertile offspring.
C) A species is described in terms of its interaction with living and non-living environment.
D) The DNA sequence lacks similarities among individuals.
6 9) Which of the following statements best describes macroevolution?
A) Macroevolution is the same as microevolution, but includes the origin of new species.
B) Macroevolution is evolution above the species level.
C) Macroevolution is defined as the evolution of microscopic organisms into organisms visible to the naked eye.
D) Macroevolution is defined as a change in allele or gene frequency over the course of many generations.
80 ) New species can sometimes arise via hybridization and subsequent polyploidy. Which of the following describes the
likely geographic and reproductive relationships between the hybridizing species?
A) The two species are allopatric and breed at different times of the year.
B) The two species are sympatric and breed during the same seasons of the year.
C) The two species are sympatric, but breed during different times of the year.
D) The two species can be either allopatric or sympatric, but breed during the same seasons of the year.
- The diagram represents the splitting of one population into two separate lineages that become more different over
time (the distance between the two lines represents the amount of difference between the two lineages). Which of the
following scenarios is most likely result in the patterns shown in the diagram?
A) a glacier that retreats northward and allows contact between eastern and western populations
B) an earthquake that pushes debris into the middle of a lake and makes two unconnected lakes
C) erosion of a mountain that separated two closely related populations
D) building of a canal by people to connect two rivers
81 ) Which of the following factors most likely accounts for the fact that polyploids are much more common in plants than
in animals?
A) A tetraploid plant is more likely to be able to self-fertilize and produce offspring, but a tetraploid animal would need a
second, independently produced tetraploid with which to mate.
B) A diploid plant is more likely to be able to self-fertilize and produce offspring, but a diploid animal almost always needs
another diploid as a mate.
C) Plants are more likely to produce diploid gametes than are animals.
D) Meiotic mechanisms are less reliable in plants than in animals.
82 ) According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium, the "sudden" appearance of a new species in the fossil record
means that ________.
A) the species is now extinct
B) speciation occurred in one generation
C) speciation occurred rapidly in geologic time
D) the species will consequently have a relatively short existence compared with other species
83 ) Which of the following statements about the punctuated and gradual models of speciation is most accurate?
A) Although speciation can occur rapidly or gradually, the fossil record is not always detailed enough to determine how
rapidly a particular speciation event proceeded.
B) The fossil record can only determine if the punctuated model is relevant or not to a particular speciation event.
C) Genetic differences can only determine if the gradual model is relevant or not to a particular speciation event.
D) The fossil record can be used to determine which speciation model best explains a particular speciation event.
84 ) Which of the following statements correctly describes a change that must occur for a new species to arise?
A) The number of chromosomes in the gene pool must change.
B) Changes to centromere location or chromosome size must occur.
C) Large numbers of genes that affect numerous phenotypic traits must change.
D) At least one gene, affecting one reproductive barrier, must change.
85 ) Which of the following processes would contribute to divergence between lineages once divergence has already
begun?
A) sexual selection and habitat differences
B) sexual selection and polyploidy
C) polyploidy and hybridization
D) habitat differences and hybridization
86 ) The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is a ________.
A) population
B) species
C) genus
D) hybrid
87 ) Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different
elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that attract females.
What type of reproductive isolation does this represent?
A) habitat isolation
B) temporal isolation
C) behavioral isolation
D) gametic isolation
88 ) According to the punctuated equilibria model, ________.
A) given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species
B) most new species accumulate their unique features relatively rapidly as they come into existence, then change little for
the rest of their duration as a species
C) most evolution occurs in sympatric populations
D) speciation is usually due to a single mutation
- Changing ONE amino acid in a protein consisting of 552 amino acids would:
A) Always alter the primary structure of the protein, sometimes alter the tertiary structure of the protein, and perhaps
affect its biological activity.
B) Cause the quaternary structure of the protein to unfold.
C) Always alter the biological activity or function of the protein.
D) Alter the protein’s primary structure, but not its tertiary structure or function.
- Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide:
A) glucose
B) fructose
C) sucrose
D) galactose
9 1) What molecule (s) are in a triglyceride?
A) fatty acids
B) glycogen
C) glycerol
D) a and c
- Which of the following explains most specifically the attraction of water molecules to one another?
A) nonpolar covalent bond
B) polar covalent bond
C) ionic bond
D) hydrogen bond
- Which of the following effects is produced by capillary action?
A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
C) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants.
D) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
