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Board Question Breakdown, Exams of Histology

Review Questions and Answers for Board Review Questions.

Typology: Exams

2018/2019

Uploaded on 02/11/2022

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Board Question Breakdown (Anatomic Sciences section)
The Anatomic Sciences portion of part I of the Dental Board exams consists of 100 test items.
They are broken up into the following distribution:
Gross Anatomy (50 questions):
Head - 28 questions broken down in this fashion:
- Oral cavity - 6 questions
- Extraoral structures - 12 questions
- Osteology - 6 questions
- TMJ and muscles of mastication - 4 questions
Neck - 5 questions
Upper Limb - 3 questions
Thoracic cavity - 5 questions
Abdominopelvic cavity - 2 questions
Neuroanatomy (CNS, ANS +) - 7 questions
Basic Histology (23 questions):
Ultrastructure (cell organelles) - 4 questions
Basic tissues - 4 questions
Bone, cartilage & joints - 3 questions
Lymphatic & circulatory systems - 3 questions
Endocrine system - 2 questions
Respiratory system - 1 question
Gastrointestinal system - 3 questions
Genitouirinary systems - (reproductive & urinary) 2 questions
Integument - 1 question
Oral Histology (16 questions):
Tooth & supporting structures - 9 questions
Soft oral tissues (including dentin) - 5 questions
Temporomandibular joint - 2 questions
Developmental Biology (11 questions):
Osteogenesis (bone formation) - 2 questions
Tooth development, eruption & movement - 4 questions
General embryology - 2 questions
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Board Question Breakdown (Anatomic Sciences section)

The Anatomic Sciences portion of part I of the Dental Board exams consists of 100 test items. They are broken up into the following distribution:

Gross Anatomy (50 questions):

Head - 28 questions broken down in this fashion:

  • Oral cavity - 6 questions
  • Extraoral structures - 12 questions
  • Osteology - 6 questions
  • TMJ and muscles of mastication - 4 questions Neck - 5 questions Upper Limb - 3 questions Thoracic cavity - 5 questions Abdominopelvic cavity - 2 questions

Neuroanatomy (CNS, ANS +) - 7 questions

Basic Histology (23 questions):

Ultrastructure (cell organelles) - 4 questions Basic tissues - 4 questions Bone, cartilage & joints - 3 questions Lymphatic & circulatory systems - 3 questions Endocrine system - 2 questions Respiratory system - 1 question Gastrointestinal system - 3 questions Genitouirinary systems - (reproductive & urinary) 2 questions Integument - 1 question

Oral Histology (16 questions):

Tooth & supporting structures - 9 questions Soft oral tissues (including dentin) - 5 questions Temporomandibular joint - 2 questions

Developmental Biology (11 questions):

Osteogenesis (bone formation) - 2 questions Tooth development , eruption & movement - 4 questions General embryology - 2 questions

National Board Part 1: Review questions for histology/oral histology

(Answers follow at the end)

  1. Normally most of the circulating white blood cells are

a. basophilic leukocytes b. monocytes c. lymphocytes d. eosinophilic leukocytes e. neutrophilic leukocytes

  1. Blood platelets are products of

a. osteoclasts b. basophils c. red blood cells d. plasma cells e. megakaryocytes

  1. Bacteria are frequently ingested by

a. neutrophilic leukocytes b. basophilic leukocytes c. mast cells d. small lymphocytes e. fibrocytes

  1. It is believed that worn out red cells are normally destroyed in the spleen by

a. neutrophils b. macrophages c. megakaryocytes d. monocytes e. mast cells

  1. Which of the following does not exhibit phagocytic properties?

a. monocytes b. basophils c. platelets d. eosinophils e. PMN's (PMLs)

  1. Which of the following would be least evident during adolescence?

a. lamellar bone b. parallel-fibered bone c. primary vascular canals d. secondary vascular canals e. woven bone

  1. The oldest lamella of a Haversian system (osteon) is

a. the most peripheral lamella b. not calcified c. the most central lamella d. adjacent to endosteum e. adjacent to periosteum

  1. In a slide showing spongy bone formed solely by intramembranous ossification, all of the following features may be found upon microscopic examination except

a. non-lamellar bone b. osteoclasts c. lamellar bone d. calcified cartilage e. periosteum

  1. Demineralized bone consists chiefly of

a. sialic acid and other mucopolysaccharides b. osteoid c. amorphous hydroxyapatite d. canaliculi and lacunae e. collagen

  1. The formation of bone in the absence of a pre-existing cartilage framework is called

a. nonlamellar b. lamellar c. intramembranous d. intercartilaginous e. endochondral

  1. Which one of the following is a correct statement concerning Haversian systems (osteons)?

a. are found in fetal skeletons b. are found in spongy bone c. develop around Volkman's canals d. develop around a blood vessel e. are most common during rapid growth of adolescence

  1. Osteoclasts arise from

a. osteocytes b. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts d. monocytes e. osteoprogenitor cells

  1. Osteocytes arise most directly from

a. chondrocytes b. osteoblasts c. osteoclasts d. monocytes e. osteoprogenitor cells

  1. Fibrocartilage is characterized at the light microscopic level by

a. basophilia b. elastic fibers c. perichondrium d. collagen(ic) fibers e. mineralized matrix

  1. The microscopic structure of certain parts of the temporomandibular joint differs from corresponding parts of most other articulations of the human body. One such difference is that the articulating surfaces of the TMJ are

a. bone b. elastic cartilage c. vascular d. fibrous tissue e. hyaline cartilage

  1. The presence of which one of the following characteristics is of least value in distinguishing bone from hyaline cartilage?

a. lamellae b. cell nests c. Haversian canals d. lacunae e. canaliculi

  1. Which one of the following cells would be best for the study of lysosomes?

a. fibroblasts b. macrophages c. mast cells d. mesenchymal cells e. fat cells

  1. Heparin is produced by

a. mast cells b. macrophages c. lymphocytes d. plasma cells e. hepatocytes

  1. All of the following have ribosomes attached to them except

a. nuclear envelope b. tRNA c. endoplasmic reticulum d. each other e. phagosomes

  1. Which one of the following parts of a cell lacks a bounding memberane?

a. nucleolus b. endoplasmic reticulum c. lysosomes d. Golgi complex e. nucleus

  1. The electron dense layers of cell membranes are biochemically identified as

a. carbohydrate b. glycolipid c. sialic acid d. phospholipid-protein complex e. interphase between lipid layers

  1. Intracellular digestion is a chief function of the

a. Golgi apparatus b. endoplasmic reticulum c. lysosomes d. residual bodies e. mitochondria

  1. Which one of the following structures is visible in the light microscope?

a. mitochondrion b. ribosomes c. tight junction d. smooth endoplasmic reticulum e. plasma membrane

  1. The basal body of a cilium has a tubular filament arrangement which is identical to the pattern found in

a. microvilli b. centrioles c. spindle fibers d. stereocilia e. microtubules

  1. Which one of the following junctions is characterized by the fusion of the outer leaflets of the cell membranes of adjacent cells?

a. zonula adherens b. desmosomes c. macula adherens d. gap junctions e. tight junctions (zonula occludens)

  1. Cytoplasmic basophilia is characteristic of cells that

a. are actively producing steroid hormones b. have abundant DNA in the cytoplasm c. are in the S stage d. are synthesizing large amounts of protein e. exhibit a conspicuous Golgi complex

  1. Which one of the following has skeletal muscle in the muscularis externa?

a. colon b. appendix c. stomach d. esophagus e. small intestine

  1. The submucosal plexus (Meissner's plexus) contains cell bodies of

a. preganglionic parasympathetic neurons b. postganglionic sympathetic neurons c. postganglionic parasympathetic neurons d. preganglionic sympathetic neurons e. none of the above

  1. Goblet cells are most numerous in the walls of the

a. villi b. gastric glands c. crypts of Lieberkuhn (intestinal glands) in the ileum d. crypts of Lieberkuhn (intestinal glands) in the duodenum e. crypts of Lieberkuhn (intestinal glands) in the colon

  1. In humans, the lining epithelium of the esophagus is

a. transitional b. simple columnar c. stratified squamous, keratinized d. stratified squamous, non-keratinized e. stratified cuboidal

  1. Pancreatic alpha cells secrete

a. glucagon b. insulin c. somatostatin d. gastrin e. pancreatic digestive enzymes

  1. Endothelium and mesothelium form cellular membranes which have the same histologic structure as

a. stratified cuboidal epithelium b. simple columnar epithelium c. simple cuboidal epithelium d. stratified squamous epithelium e. simple squamous epithelium

  1. Which one of the following epithelia is least common?

a. transitional b. pseudostratified columnar (ciliated) c. simple columnar d. stratified columnar e. simple squamous

  1. The broadest basis for classifying epithelium into subgroups is

a. keratinized or not keratinized b. squamous, cuboidal or columnar c. simple or stratified d. absorptive or secretory e. lining or glandular

  1. Regarding simple columnar epithelium which statement is least descriptive?

a. may be keratinized b. may exhibit a microvillous border c. the height of each cell is typically greater than its width d. may have motile cilia e. may contain goblet cells

  1. Which of the following features is NOT characteristic of epithelium?

a. is usually supported by a basement membrane b. little intercellular space c. high cellularity d. highly vascular e. b, c, and d are all incorrect

  1. Glands are classified based on

a. their secretory product b. mode of secretion c. branching pattern of the ducts d. b and c are correct e. a, b, and c are correct

  1. The human dermis lacks which of the following?

a. reticular layer b. sweat glands c. melanin d. hair follicles e. sensory corpuscles

  1. The most prominent component of a skeletal muscle cell is

a. mitochondria b. Golgi complex c. myoglobin d. myofilaments e. glycogen

  1. Caveolae in smooth muscle cells are thought to be analogous to

a. lysosomes b. secretory vesicles c. T-tubules d. pinocytotic vesicles e. phagosomes

  1. The thick filaments of skeletal muscle fibers

a. consist of both actin and myosin b. are present in the A band c. consist of actin d. are crossed by the Z line e. are present in the I bands

  1. The contractile element (component) of skeletal muscle is in the

a. myofibrils b. sarcoplasmic reticulum c. sarcolemma d. endomysium e. sarcoplasm

  1. The connective tissue investment seen with the light microscope around an individual muscle fiber of skeletal muscle is

a. endomysium b. epimysium c. sarcolemma d. perimysium e. basal lamina

  1. A node of Ranvier is

a. the point of near-contact between the processes of two neurons b. characteristic of unmyelinated fibers c. a constriction of the axon d. a nerve receptor e. a junction between two Schwann cells

  1. Most of the nuclei seen in a cross section of a peripheral nerve belong to

a. microglia b. neurons c. Schwann cells d. fibroblasts e. satellite cells

  1. Pacinian corpuscles usually are considered to be most responsive to

a. light touch b. pressure c. pain d. heat e. cold

  1. The cells that are responsible for forming myelin in the central nervous system are the

a. Schwann cells b. satellite cells c. microglia d. astroglia e. oligodendroglia

  1. Nissl substance in nerve cell bodies is associated with

a. spread of stimulus b. synaptic junctions c. axons d. protein synthesis e. myelin formation

  1. A myelinated nerve has how many Schwann cells between two adjacent nodes of Ranvier?

a. one b. two c. three d. four e. more than four

  1. The walls of bronchioles lack

a. elastic tissue b. columnar epithelium c. smooth muscle d. hyaline cartilage e. ciliated cells

  1. The majority of water resorption in the kidney occurs in the

a. connecting tubules b. Thin loop of Henle c. distal convoluted tubules d. proximal convoluted tubules e. collecting tubules

  1. All of the following regarding podocytes is correct except

a. line part of the capsular space b. produce basal lamina c. possess pedicles d. form part of the blood-urinary barrier e. are joined to one another by tight junctions

  1. Pericytes are commonly found in association with

a. sinusoids b. lymphatic capillaries c. discontinuous capillaries d. fenestrated capillaries e. continuous capillaries

  1. Which of the following components of blood vessels is most consistently present?

a. endothelium b. tunica media c. tunica adventitia d. elastic tissue e. smooth muscle fibers

  1. Which one of the following vessels exhibits the greatest permeability?

a. continuous type of capillaries b. lymph capillaries c. fenestrated capillaries d. postcapillary venules e. fenestrated sinusoids

  1. This cell is associated with osteoid secretion

a. bone lining cell b. osteoblast c. osteoclast d. monocyte e. fibroblast

  1. This cell is responsible for the majority of bone resoprtion/remodeling

a. bone lining cell b. osteoblast c. osteoclast d. monocyte e. fibroblast

  1. This portion of the hypophysis (pituitary gland) releases no known hormones

a. pars distalis b. pars intermedia c. pars nervosa d. pars tuberalis e. they all secrete hormones

  1. Pituicytes are glial-like cells of the

a. pars distalis b. pars intermedia c. pars nervosa d. pars tuberalis e. pineal gland

  1. Oxytocin is a hormone secreted by cells of the

a. pars distalis b. pars intermedia c. pars nervosa d. pars tuberalis e. uterus

  1. Calcitonin is secreted by these specific cells

a. chromophils b. interstitial cells (of Leydig) c. basophils d. principal cells of the thyroid e. parafollicular cells of the thyroid

  1. Colloid is a substance associated with which of the following endocrine organs?

a. suprarenal (adrenal) glands b. thyroid gland c. testis d. ovary e. pineal gland

  1. These are 10 to 20 short tubules that drain spermatozoa from the rete testis

a. efferent ductules b. tubuli recti c. ductus deferens d. ductus epididymis e. prostatic urethra

  1. Which of the following secretes a fructose-rich fluid into the ejaculate?

a. prostate b. seminal vesicles c. ductus deferens d. bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands e. glands of Litre

  1. A mucoid secretion from this gland lubricates the spongy/penile urethral lumen

a. prostate b. seminal vesicles c. ductus deferens d. bulbourethral (Cowper's) glands e. glands of Litre

  1. Secretion of this material identifies a secondary (antral) follicle of the ovary

a. colloid b. liquor follicluli c. estrogen d. progesterone e. cumulus oophorus

  1. The following structure results when pregnancy does not follow ovulation

a. corpus luteum of menstruation b. cumulus oophorus c. theca externa d. theca lutein e. corpus albicans

  1. This layer of the uterus is shed monthly in menstruating females

a. myometrium b. functionalis layer of endometrium c. basalis layer of endometrium d. cervical epithelium e. epimetrium

  1. The vagina is lined by this specific type of epithelium

a. transitional b. stratified squamous keratinizing c. stratified squamous non-keratinizing d. pseudostratified columnar e. stratified cuboidal

  1. When a tooth first erupts into the oral cavity, the attached epithelial cuff is composed of epithelium derived from

a. lamina propria b. epithelial rests (of Malassez) c. (Hertwig's) epithelial root sheath d. oral mucosa e. reduced enamel epithelium

  1. Tritiated thymidine is a radioisotope that is incorporated into DNA during the s-stage. Consequently, tritiated thymidine may be used to identify dividing cells. Which cells of the dental organ would you expect would incorporate tritiated thymidine? Cells whose function is

a. organizing b. maturation c. morphogenic d. protection e. secretory

  1. Which one of the following is a part of the tooth germ (dental/enamel organ)?

a. inner dental epithelium b. dental sac c. dental papilla d. stellate reticulum e. dental lamina

  1. Avitaminosis (scurvey) results in a loosening of the teeth in the sockets chiefly because ascorbic acid (vitamin C) is needed by

a. osteoblasts to form bone b. cells to produce collagen c. odontoblasts to form dentin d. cells to fight viruses e. cementoblasts to form cementum