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BOG Board of Governors Exam in Healthcare Management Practice Exam 2025 (ACHE FREQUENTLY TESTED QUESTIONS) Which of the following is an example of a strategic decision support category of computerized information systems? a. Computerized patient records b. Office automation c. Performance assessment d. Regional/National database A.
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Which of the following is an example of a strategic decision support category of computerized information systems? a. Computerized patient records b. Office automation c. Performance assessment d. Regional/National database A. When developing an organization's disaster plan to ensure system availability during the disaster recovery phase, which of the following should be identified by information technology leadership? a. Cost benefit analysis b. Potential risks to system c. Root cause analysis d. Project plan B. Why is it important for the IT strategy to align with the organization's goals and objectives? a. To increase Medicare payments b. To improve access to data for management, providers and consumers c. To allow the CEO to control IT spending d. To give the CIO a seat on the Executive Committee B. Membership of the IT Steering Committee should comprise: a. The CEO, CIO, CFO, Chief of the Medical Staff and chair of the governing board b. Representatives of administration, physician leadership, information systems management and major user departments c. The CIO and senior systems analysts d. The CIO and outside technical consultants
One of the major elements of a strategic IT plan is: a. A request for proposals (RFP) from vendors b. A list of detailed specifications for computer programs c. Priorities for individual computer applications to be aligned with the strategic objectives of the organization d. Specification for computer hardware installation and maintenance C. Selection of an information system in a healthcare organization should begin with: a. Meeting with several information systems vendors to determine the scope of available technology b. Hiring an information systems consultant to determine the organization's strategic needs c. Development of an information systems plan that supports the organization's existing strategic objectives d. Evaluation of available hardware and software to best determine what meets the organization's needs C. The goal of HIPAA in terms of security and privacy was to: a. Improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the healthcare system via electronic data interchange b. Expand the privacy and security requirements of the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act c. Provide financial incentives for implementing secure electronic health records d. Establish privacy standards for federal government organizations only A. The best location to store a backup copy of the organization's data and information is: a. In a building nearby the primary data center b. In the basement of the hospital for quick access in an emergency c. Preferably in another city in a different region of the country d. No need to create a backup copy if your data center is hardened against attacks
b. Terrorist, disgruntled employee, or cyber attacks c. Unscheduled information systems downtime d. Stock market downturn D. Which of the following is NOT an important component of an information security program? a. Maintenance of user audit logs to record who has accessed data files b. Encryption of critical information c. Policies that require all employees to be aware of security procedures and include training programs and disciplinary action for violations. d. Use of computer software that is HL7 compliant for data compatibility. D. How do CIO and CEO job responsibilities differ? a. Financial Management b. Human Resource Management c. Strategic Planning d. Fundraising and Development D. What competencies do not matter in selecting a CIO? a. Prior management experience b. Knowledge of healthcare organization and delivery c. Personal relationship with Board Member d. Finance and Budgeting skills C. ________ is the process of monitoring and measuring project progress and influencing the plan to account for any discrepancies between planned progress and actual progress. A. Project monitoring B. Project execution C. Progress monitoring D. Project control E. Progress control
d. project control We have an expert-written solution to this problem! ________ is the final implementation and training related to the project, getting acceptance and signoff on the project, and archiving of the project's results. A. Project closure B. Project implementation C. Project handover D. Project signoff E. Project closing a. project closure Controlling processes are important factors in ________ of the ten project management knowledge areas. A. four B. five C. six D. seven E. all e. all Which of the following is a philosophy of project control? A. dogmatic philosophy B. strict philosophy C. relaxed philosophy D. firm philosophy E. rigid philosophy a. dogmatic philosophy ________ is the management style the manager employs in following a plan and dealing with problems or changes in the plan. A. Approach to project control B. Philosophy of project control C. Style of project control
E. withholding insider info. Reluctance to hear bad news communicated from lower levels of the organizational hierarchy is referred to as: A. blowing the whistle. B. mum effect. C. deaf effect. D. fear of reprisal. E. blame-the-messenger. Perhaps the most important levers for controlling projects is: A. communication. B. participation. C. analysis and action. D. team members' commitment. E. continuous monitoring. a. communication ________ are activities and reporting methods instituted during the course of a project to monitor its progress and to provide reports for project managers and stakeholders. A. Project guidelines B. Standard project procedures C. Project rules D. Procedural rules E. Standard operating procedures e. standard operating procedures We have an expert-written solution to this problem! Earned value management is a powerful cost control technique that provides estimates on the likelihood the project will meet________ requirements. A. schedule B. budget C. project D. quality, schedule, and budget
E. schedule and budget e. schedule and budget ________ measures project performance over time, and provides a way to forecast future performance based on past performance. A. Variance analysis B. Schedule analysis C. Project performance analysis D. Earned value management E. Rolling wave analysis d. earned value management ________ are documented recommendations that needed to bring future project performance into conformance with the project management plan. A. Recommended preventive actions B. Project control actions C. Risk mitigation actions D. Recommended corrective actions E. Recommended change requests d. recommended corrective actions ________ are documented recommendations that minimize the probability of negative consequences to the project. A. Recommended preventive actions B. Project control actions C. Risk mitigation actions D. Recommended corrective actions E. Recommended change requests a. recommended preventive actions ________ are documented and authorized changes that are scheduled for implementation by the project team. A. Approved change requests B. Approved corrective actions
A. Cause and effect diagramming B. Baseline analysis C. Variance analysis D. Progress analysis E. Earned value analysis c. variance analysis A change control system is a documented process that describes the procedures by which: A. the project and product scope can be changed. B. changes are controlled. C. system changes are managed. D. the project scope can be changed. E. the product scope can be changed. a. the project and product scope can be changed The ________ is a time-phased budget that is used to measure and monitor cost performance. A. budget baseline B. project budget C. cost baseline D. project resources baseline E. adjusted budget c. cost baseline A cost control method for examining project cost performance over time to determine whether performance is improving or deteriorating is: A. cost analysis. B. variance analysis. C. trend analysis. D. earned value analysis. E. performance analysis. d. earned value analysis The budgeted cost for the work scheduled to be completed on an activity up to a given point of time is referred to as:
a. PV The budgeted amount for the work actually completed on the activity during a given time period is referred to as: A. PV B. EV C. CV D. EC E. EAC b. ev The actual cost associated with work on an activity during a particular time period is: A. the product of PV and % completed. B. the product of EV and % completed. C. The product of EV and PV. D. not calculated but drawn from invoices. E. the product of PV and CV. b. the product of EV and % completed ________ is the difference between the earned value and the actual cost. A. CV B. SV C. CD D. SD E. CPI a. cv ________ is the difference between the scheduled completion of an activity and the actual completion. A. CV
D. schedule performance index E. to-complete performance index e. to-complete performance index Pareto's law states that: A. in a histogram, the probabilities of occurrence are cumulative. B. 80 percent of the problems are the result of 20 percent of the causes. C. 80 percent of the causes result in 20 percent of the problems. D. the bars in a histogram should be arranged in decreasing order. E. the causes and problems follow a Pareto distribution. b. 80 percent of the problems and the result of 20 percent of the causes ________ is the process of comparing what was contracted for with what is being done or has been done to ensure that both parties perform according to the contract, as well as closing the contract. A. Validate procurements B. Contract audit C. Procurement audit D. Contract closure E. Control procurements e. control procurements A ________ is a review performed to examine the procurement process from the Plan Procurement Management process through the Conduct Procurements process. A. procurement review B. contract audit C. procurement audit D. contract review E. buyer-conducted performance review c. procurement audit A ________ is a structured review of the vendor's progress in fulfilling the terms of the contract. A. procurement review B. contract audit
C. procurement audit D. contract review E. buyer-conducted performance review a. procurement review A(n) ________ contains a record of the project management techniques employed over the course of the project, surveys, and outstanding items that still need to be resolved. A. end report B. post-implementation report C. outstanding item report D. handover report E. project closure document e. project closure document A post-implementation review is conducted: A. right after a project was implemented. B. a few weeks after user training has commenced. C. once the client has become familiar with the product. D. 6-12 months after implementation. E. once enough experience with the product has been accumulated. a. right after a project