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This comprehensive study guide covers key concepts in human anatomy and physiology, focusing on the cardiovascular system and blood. it includes detailed explanations of blood components, the cardiac cycle, blood vessels, and related physiological processes. The guide is ideal for students preparing for exams in introductory anatomy and physiology courses. it provides a structured approach to learning, with numerous questions and answers to reinforce understanding.
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Cumulative Module 1-3 Exam (Chapters 17-22) Study Guide In addition to using this study guide to prepare you for the exam, you should also use the chapter summary at the end of each chapter. Chapter 17 - Blood What are the formed elements? Erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets. Which formed elements have nuclei? Leukocytes have nuclei, erythrocytes lose their nucleus in the last stage of erythropoiesis and platelets are cell fragments. What is the lifespan for an erythrocyte and why? 120 days because there are no nuclei and therefore no mitosis What is the term for a decreased number of platelets? thrombocytopenia Be able to name the components of plasma (refer to chart found in lecture notes and textbook) What are the names of important plasma proteins and what are their functions? Albumin is responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure, globulins form antibodies and fibrinogen forms fibrin in the last step of coagulation What is the stimulus that triggers erythropoiesis? Lack of oxygen, increased tissue demand for oxygen. What organ is responsible for producing erythropoietin and where are RBCs produced? Kidney and red bone marrow Which blood clotting disease is transmitted by the X chromosome? Hemophilia so this means it's much more common in men than women Be able to describe the various types of anemia in your textbook: iron-deficiency anemia, pernicious anemia, renal anemia, aplastic anemia and sickle-cell anemia. Be able to interpret the results of a differential WBC count. If a patient has elevated eosinophils, what could be going on? Possible allergy or parasitic worm. What leukocytes are granulocytes and which leukocytes are agranulocytes? Granulocytes are neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils. Agranulocytes are lymphocytes and monocytes. Be able to describe the differences between leukocytes. For example, which leukocyte has multiple nuclei? Neutrophils In what ways is blood an atypical type of connective tissue? is a liquid tissue but has the same elements as other types of connective tissue; solid fibers only appear during clotting Be able to name the main steps of coagulation. What is prothrombin converted to? Thrombin. What is fibrinogen converted to? Fibrin
What are the 3 steps of hemostasis and what happens in each? 1. Vascular spasm - blood vessel constricts to prevent further blood loss, platelet plug - platelets stick to damaged area of torn vessel to help seal the break, 3. Coagulation - reinforces the platelet plug by eventually producing fibrin threads Where are antigens and antibodies found? Antigens are found on the RBC membranes, they trigger a response from the recipient’s immune system. Antibodies are found in the plasma. What blood type can receive blood from any donor? AB+ because since all antigens are present on their RBC there are no antibodies in the plasma Which blood type is the universal donor and why? O- blood because the RBC has no antigens
What is erythroblastosis fetalis and when does it occur? Occurs during a second pregnancy when the mother is Rh- and the baby is Rh+. In this case, the Rh+ antibodies from the mother will cross the placenta and destroy the baby’s RBCs. Chapter 18 - Heart What are the anatomical landmarks for the heart? The heart lies in the mediastinum, sits on the surface of the diaphragm, left ventricle forms the apex and points toward the left hip. Know the gross anatomy of the heart. For example, where is the coronary sulcus located? Between the atria and the ventricles. What happens if there is any blockage of a coronary artery? Ischemia (lack of oxygen) to the cardiac muscle that is served by that specific coronary artery. What are the branches of the left coronary artery? Anterior interventricular branch and circumflex branch. What are the branches of the right coronary artery? Posterior interventricular artery and left marginal artery Know the chambers, valves and be able to trace blood as it travels through the heart. What part of the cardiac cycle would be affected if there is narrowing (stenosis) of the pulmonary valve? It would affect blood leaving the right ventricle that goes into the pulmonary trunk Know the phases of cardiac cycle and the main events that happen in each. What occurs during atrial contraction? Ventricular filling and gravity plays a role. What happens during ventricular contraction? Blood is ejected from the ventricles and goes into the great vessels (aorta and pulmonary trunk). What happen during isovolumetric contraction, ventricular relaxation and isovolumetric relaxation? In both cases the volume remains the same (because all valves are closed) and only ventricular pressure changes
What are the names of the different blood vessels? Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules and veins What is the name of the tunics in each blood vessel? All blood vessels have all 3 tunics (tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia) except for the capillaries. Where is the internal carotid artery and what is its function? Branch of the common carotid artery, participates in the formation of the Circle of Willis, passes through the skull to supply oxygen and nutrients to the brain. What is an anastomosis and what is one example? Connection between blood vessels that forms around a specific structure. Examples include Circle of Willis or foramen ovale. What are the branches of the aortic arch? Right brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid artery and left subclavian artery. What are the branches of the ascending aorta? Right and left coronary arteries What blood vessels join to form the inferior vena cava? Right and left common iliac veins What is the hepatic portal circulation? Portal vein is formed by the union of the splenic and superior mesenteric veins, carries nutrient rich blood to the liver and drains the majority of the gastrointestinal tract. What are the branches of the abdominal aorta? Celiac axis/trunk, renal arteries, superior mesenteric arteries, inferior mesenteric arteries Where does the popliteal lead to? Anterior and posterior tibial arteries What organ receives blood from the internal iliac artery? Uterus What veins drain into the inferior vena cava? Veins inferior to the diaphragm like the renal veins, hepatic veins and common iliac veins What is cardiac output and what is the formula used to calculate it? The amount of blood ejected from the heart in 1 minute, CO=SV x HR How do athletes maintain a normal cardiac output with a low HR? Athletes have a high stroke volume What is the EDV? End diastolic volume, amount of blood remaining after the ventricles relax. What is the ESV? End systolic volume, amount of blood remaining after the ventricles
What happens to the EDV with a high HR? It decreases because the diastole (relaxation) time is shorter.
What is essential hypertension and what is the cause? Hypertension is a BP above 130/90 and the cause is unknown. What is tachycardia? Heart rate increase What is bradycardia? Heart rate decrease What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the heart? Increases the HR and force of contraction (contractility) of the chambers. What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on the heart? Decreasing the HR through the vagus nerve. What factors affect BP? Peripheral resistance of blood pressures and cardiac output. What does blood doping do to peripheral resistance? Increases peripheral resistance because the blood is more viscous and requires more force to distribute throughout the body What is the response of the body from hemorrhaging profusely and going into shock? Constriction of blood vessels to raise blood pressure. What chemicals increase BP? Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), epinephrine, angiotensin What chemicals decrease BP? Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) Chapter 20 - Lymphatic System What is the main function of the lymphatic system? What are the main components of this system? Bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, lymphatic vessels Where are the major areas of lymph nodes in the body? Cervical, axillary, and inguinal lymph nodes Describe the general anatomy of the lymph node. Afferent vessels enter the lymph node at the convex surface and the efferent vessels exit the lymph node at the concave surface where the hilum is located. Where are the major lymph nodes located? Lingual tonsils located at the base of the tongue. Tubal tonsils are located around the auditory tube. What are the names of the tonsils located in the oral cavity and what differentiates them from other lymphoid tissue? palatine tonsils, pharyngeal tonsils (also called adenoids), lined by stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium. What are the tonsils located in the nasopharynx? Pharyngeal tonsil What is the location of isolated lymphatic nodules? Peyer’s patches of the small intestine What part of a lymph node shows that there is an active infection occurring? There would be the presence of enlarged germinal centers in the lymph follicles which are located in the cortex. Germinal centers contain dividing B cells.
Compare and contrast humoral and cellular immunity. Humoral immunity involves B lymphocytes and includes antibody secretion. Cellular immunity involves T lymphocytes and targets intracellular pathogens. What are cytotoxic T lymphocytes and what do they do? Attack mismatched recipient cells. Rid the body of cancer cells and cells that are infected by viruses and take part in graft rejection, require MHC proteins to display the antigens on the cell surface, attack the target cell membrane and are stimulated by helper T cells What are antibodies? Proteins produced in response to antigens. How are they made and what cells increase when antibodies are being produced? B lymphocytes produce plasma cells and plasma cells manufacture antibodies. What is passive, natural immunity and what is an example? When your immune system fetus receiving antibodies directly from the mother What is passive, artificial immunity and what is an example? When your immune system isn’t making antibodies but receiving them from an artificial shot (e.g. receiving a shot of antibodies before traveling to a foreign country) What is active, natural acquired immunity and what is an example? When your immune system created antibodies in response to being exposed to an antigen naturally (e.g. being exposed to measles) What is active, artificially acquired immunity and what is an example? When your immune system creates antibodies after receiving a vaccination or shot. An example would be if you are receiving a vaccination of a weakened virus like the flu shot. In this case, the flu virus challenges the immune system and the immune system manufactures antibodies that will mount a response against the antigens. What is the difference between the primary and secondary response to an antigen? The primary immune response occurs on the first exposure to a particular antigen and has a lag time of 3-6 days after the antigen encounter. The secondary occurs when the antigen is reexposed to the same antigen and is more prolonged because there is immunological membrane and the immune system can respond much more quickly. What are the mechanisms of action that occur during an antibody-antigen reaction? Neutralization, agglutination, precipitation, and complement fixation and cell lysis What are the names of the antibodies are what are their functions? IgM - first immunoglobulin class secreted by plasma cells during the primary response, IgA - found in body secretions such as saliva, sweat, intestinal juice and milk, IgD - found on B cell surface and functions as a B cell antigen receptor, I1gG - most abundant antibody in plasma accounting for 75%-85% of circulating antibodies, and IgE - binds to mast cells or basophils,
antigen binding to its receptor end triggers these cells to release histamine and other chemicals that mediate inflammation and an allergic reaction What is the immune system response to AIDS? Helper T lymphocytes are destroyed What is an autoimmune disease and what are some examples? This type of disease results from the inability of the immune system to distinguish self from non-self, examples are rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, Graves’ disease, Type 1 diabetes mellitus, lupus, and glomerulonephritis What events happen when there is a hypertensive reaction? Occurs when the immune system damages tissue as it fights off a perceived threat that would otherwise be harmless to the body, hypersensitive reactions cause IgE antibodies to be secreted that attach to the surface of the body’s mast cells and basophils; other reactions from the body include an allergic reaction with mast cells and basophils releasing histamine Chapter 22 - Respiratory System Where is the olfactory epithelium located? Roof of the nose What is the makeup of the nasal septum? Cartilage and bone (vomer and part of the ethmoid bone) Be able to identify the location of the tonsils. For example, where are the palatine tonsils located? oropharynx Which laryngeal cartilage is paired? Arytenoid What is the epiglottis cartilage and its purpose? Elastic cartilage that prevents food from entering the larynx Which region of the respiratory system has the largest tube and has walls made of hyaline cartilage rings? Trachea. Which region of the respiratory system has many small tubes of less than 1 mm in diameter, has smooth muscles in the walls and no cartilage? Bronchioles. The vocal cords in the larynx is responsible for the production of sound. What is the anatomical difference between vocal cords in men and women? Shorter and thinner vocal cords are the reason for the higher pitch in women. What is the narrowest region of the larynx? Between the vocal folds What are the names of the divisions of the pharynx? From superior to inferior nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx
What are the various respiratory volumes and their amount? For example, what is tidal volume (TV) and what is its volume? Tidal volume is the amount of air that is breathed in or out during a normal respiration and is 500 mL of air. What is the vital capacity and what is its volume? Exchangeable air (includes tidal volume, inspiratory reserve volume and expiratory reserve volume), normally is 3100 mL in women and 4800 mL in men. What enzyme is present in the chemical reaction CO2 + H20 — H2CO3? Carbonic anhydrase. Is this enzyme present for the reaction in the RBC or in the plasma? In the RBC What term describes the stretchiness of the lungs? Lung compliance. What two factors contribute to lung compliance? Distensibility of the lung tissue and alveolar tension What is pulmonary ventilation? Breathing of air in (inspiration) and out (expiration) of the lungs. What is external respiration? Exchange of gases between the alveoli (lungs) and the blood. What is internal respiration? Exchange of gases between the blood and the tissues. What is the transport of respiratory gases? Oxygen is transported from the lungs to the tissues of the cells of the body and carbon dioxide is transported from the tissue cells to the lungs. What is surfactant and what is its function? Surfactant is a detergent-like complex of lipids and proteins produced by the type Il alveolar cells. Surfactant decreases the cohesiveness of water molecules to reduce alveolar surface tension. How is oxygen is transported in the blood? 98.5% of oxygen is transported attached to hemoglobin, 1.5% of the oxygen is transported dissolved in plasma. How is carbon dioxide transported in the blood? 70% of carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate, 20% is bound to hemoglobin, 7-10% is transported dissolved in plasma. Why is carbon dioxide transport in the plasma higher than oxygen transport in the plasma? Carbon dioxide is 20x more soluble than oxygen What factors influence pulmonary gas exchange? Solubility of gases with their partial pressure gradients, ventilation-perfusion ratio, respiratory membrane thickness (should be 0.5 um) and the surface area Where are respiratory chemoreceptors located? Located in aortic and carotid bodies and medulla of the brain. How are they stimulated? Simulated by a rise in H+ concentration and a fall in partial pressure of O,. What is dead space and how much is the typical amount? Inspired air that fills the conducting respiratory passageways and never contributes to gas exchange. The typical amount is 150 mL of 1 mL per pound of ideal body weight. This means that during a normal tidal volume inspiration (500 mL) only 350 mL of it is involved in alveolar ventilation.
What is the dead space is greater than the expected amount? Some of the alveoli may be damaged and contributing to the amount of dead space. Know the partial pressures of respiratory gases in the following blood vessels: Blood vessels 0 partial pressure CO;, partial pressure Pulmonary arteries 40 mmHg 45 mmHg Pulmonary veins 100 mmHg 40 mmHg Systemic arteries 100 mmHg 40 mmHg Systemic veins 40 mmHg 45 mmHg What is a pneumothorax? Presence of air in the pleural cavity due to a collapse of the lung.
What homeostatic imbalance occurs when there is a decrease in ADH? Diabetes insipidus when a patient is dehydrated, blood pressure may drop. ADH is also inhibited by urine so this will produce large amounts of urine. What homeostatic imbalance occurs when there is a decrease in GH? Pituitary dwarfism in children. What homeostatic imbalance occurs when there is an increase in GH? Gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults. What homeostatic imbalance occurs when there is an increase in TSH? Hyperthyroidism, exophthalmos is seen in patients with hypersecretion of thyroxine, also can cause Graves’ disease when antibodies mimic TSH. What homeostatic imbalance occurs when there is a decrease in TSH? Hypothyroidism, may cause myxedema lodine is the central ion in the both thyroid hormones. What can result from a deficiency in iodine? Formation of a thyroid goiter. How are the thyroid hormone produced (thyroxine - T4 and triiodothyronine- T3)? Produced in the colloid and then taken into the follicular cell by endocytosis What homeostatic imbalance occurs when there is an increase in ACTH? Cushing’s disease What are the symptoms of this disease or syndrome? Increased glucose levels, tissue swelling What is the function of FSH in females? Maturation of the oocyte What is the function of FSH in males? Maturation of the sperm What is the function of LH in females? Ovulation What is the function of LH in males? Sperm production so a male with low LH will have a low sperm count FSH and LH are referred to as gonadotropins because they stimulate the gonads. What is the function of PRL? Increase milk production in the lactating breast milk production in the lactating breast What is the function of calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH)/parathormone? Both of these hormones regulate calcium metabolism. Calcitonin is produces by the parafollicular cells (C cells) of the thyroid gland. Calcitonin can have a bone-sparing effect at higher doses therefore inhibiting osteoclast activity to inhibit bone resorption and stimulate calcium uptake from the blood into the bony matrix. PTH causes serum calcium levels to stimulating osteoclast activity and bone deposition. What are the layers of the adrenal cortex and what hormones are produced from each layer? The outermost is the zona glomerulosa which produces aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid). The middle layer is the zona fasciculata which produces cortisol (a glucocorticoid). The innermost layer is the zona fasciculata which produces androgens.
What happens if there is a tumor in the zona fasciculata that causes hypersecretion of hormones produced in that region? There is an increase in cortisol (glucocorticoids). What is the function of these hormones? Glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress. They do this by increasing blood glucose levels and blood pressure. Which layer of the adrenal gland is responsible for the fight/flight/fright response and what does it produce? The adrenal medulla is the innermost region of the adrenal gland and it produces epinephrine and norepinephrine. Which of hormone will cause dilation of bronchi, dilation of the pupil and increase in heart rate and would be released if blood volume has sudden become low due to a catastrophic injury (like a bad car accident)? epinephrine Be sure to understand the differences between the short-term and long-term stress response from the adrenal gland (see Focus Figure 16.2) What is a hypersecretion of hormones from the medulla of the suprarenal gland due to a tumor called? Pheochromocytoma. What hormone will be affected by this tumor? Epinephrine and causes hypertension What hormone is produced by the pineal gland and what is its function? Produces melatonin which is produced when there is an absence of light (darkness). Therefore, melatonin helps to signal the brain to start fall asleep. What time of year would you expect people to have higher levels of melatonin? In the winter because there is an absence of light. The pancreas secretes 2 important hormones that control glucose regulation. What are the two hormones, the cells within the pancreas that produce them and what is the effect on glucose regulation? Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells, it increases blood glucose by releasing glucose from the liver cells. It does this through glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen to glucose) or gluconeogenesis (synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate molecules). Insulin in secreted by beta cells it decreases blood glucose by transporting glucose into most body cells, especially muscle and fat cells. It also inhibits the breakdown of glycogen into glucose and inhibits the conversion of amino acids or fats to glucose. Which pancreatic hormone would be released if you have just had a large meal of sugary calories? Insulin lowers the blood glucose levels therefore it is referred to as a hypoglycemic hormone. Which pancreatic hormone would be released if you haven'’t eaten for 8-10 hours? Glucagon raises the blood glucose levels therefore it is referred to as a hyperglycemic hormone.
What part of the nervous system controls digestion and what does it control? Branch of the autonomic nervous system parasympathetic nervous system. This branch of the ANS controls all of the digestive processes like salivation, peristalsis of the Gl tract, production of enzymes that will trigger digestion. What are the functions of saliva? Saliva contains enzymes that begin the breakdown of carbohydrates and lipids What substance is released from the pancreas to neutralize stomach acid in the intestine? Bicarbonate ions are alkaline (basic) and will reduce the pH What are the 3 phases of gastric secretion? Cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. What controls these phases? Both neural and hormonal. For example, during the cephalic phase it occurs before food enters the stomach and is triggered by aroma or thought What is the function of the stomach? Storage and mechanical breakdown of foods, initiates protein digestion. What population of cells are found in the stomach and what role do they play? Chief cells produce the precursor to the gastric enzyme of digestion (pepsinogen), Parietal cells produce HCl along with intrinsic factor. What causes gastric HCI secretion in the stomach? parasympathetic nervous system, gastrin and histamine What are the functional cells within the liver and what is their function? Hepatocytes and they secrete bile, process bloodborne nutrients, store fat-soluble vitamins and play a role in detoxification of the blood. Hepatocytes receive arterial blood and venous blood in the sinusoids of the liver is and this is an advantage because hepatocytes can take in oxygen and nutrients at the same time. What is the function of the gallbladder? Primarily a storage organ for bile. What triggers contraction of the gallbladder? Cholecystokinin which is released by the small intestine to stimulate the gallbladder to contract. What is the consequence of an absence of bile? It would lead to abnormal fat digestion and absorption The absorptive effectiveness of the small intestine is enhanced by increasing the surface area of the mucosal lining. Which of the following accomplish the task? plicae circularis and intestinal villi What are the 5 types of cells found in the mucosal epithelium of the villi and crypts? Enterocytes, goblet cells, enteroendocrine cells, Paneth cells and stem cells. What is the function of each of these cells? Enterocytes - simple columnar absorptive cells with microvilli that have tight junctions in between them, responsibility for absorbing nutrients and electrolytes in the villi; enterocytes in the crypts secrete intestinal juice. Goblet cells - mucus-secreting cells in the epithelia of the villi and crypts. Enteroendocrine cells - secretin and cholecystokinin released from these cells, these sounds are mostly found in
the crypts but also some in the villi. Paneth cells - located deep in the crypts, secretions promote antibacterial activity. Stem cells - continuously divide in the crypts, these cells differentiate to become the other 4 cell types (for example, enterocytes at the tips of the villi undergo apoptosis and are shed to renew the villus epithelium in 3-5 days). What specialized structures are in the villi that absorb fat? Lacteals How and where are carbohydrates digested? Mouth with salivary amylase, small intestine with pancreatic amylase and small intestine with brush border enzymes How and where are proteins digested? Stomach with pepsin in the presence of HCl, small intestine with pancreatic enzymes and small intestine with brush border enzymes (peptidases) How and where are lipids digested? Mouth with lingual lipase, stomach with gastric lipase, small intestine with emulsification by action of bile and with pancreatic lipase Where does the large majority of digestion take place? Small intestine Which gland produces enzymes that break down carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids? Pancreas How does chyme play a role in digestion? Acidic chime causes distension and chemical stimulation of intestinal mucosa, alkaline pancreatic juice neutralizes the acidic chime that enters small intestine What are the subdivisions of the large intestine? Cecum, appendix, colon, rectum and anal canal. Chapter 24 - Metabolism Metabolism is the sum of all chemical reactions and can be separated into anabolic reactions and catabolic reactions. What are anabolic reactions? Monomers added to each other to produce polymers. What are chemical reactions? Polymers broken down to produce
What are examples of anabolic reactions? Any example of monomers being converted into polymers such as conversion of glucose into proteins, conversion of glucose into triglycerides, conversion of glucose into proteins. What are examples of catabolic reactions? Any example of polymers being into monomers such as glycogen broken down into glucose, lipids being broken down into glycerol and fatty acids, and proteins being broken down into amino acids. What are the monomers of carbohydrate, lipids, proteins, nucleic acids? Glucose (carbohydrates), fatty acids and glycerol (lipids), amino acids (proteins), and nucleotides
Module 6 & 7 Exam (Chapters 25-26) Study Guide In addition to using this study guide to prepare you for the exam, you should also use the chapter summary at the end of each chapter. Chapter 25 - Urinary System What are the major functions of the kidneys? Regulating total water volume and electrolyte concentration, regulating ion concentration in the ECF, regulating long-term acid-base balance, excreting metabolic wastes, toxins, and drugs, secreting erythropoietin and renin (hormones produced by kidney), activation of vitamin D and gluconeogenesis What are the organs of the urinary system? Kidney, ureter, urinary bladder, urethra. Where are these organs located? Kidneys are located retroperitoneally from T12 to L5 and the ureters and urinary bladder are located in the abdomen and pelvis What are the coverings of the kidney that protect it? Renal capsule, perirenal fat and renal fascia What are the three distinct regions of the kidney? Renal cortex, renal medulla, and renal pelvis. Describe the details of each of these regions. Renal cortex is the outer superficial region; medulla is deep to the cortex and contains medullary pyramids (renal pyramids are separated by renal columns, extensions of the renal cortex); renal pelvis is the funnel-shaped tube continuous with the ureter. The pelvis contains the minor calyx and the major calyx. What is the flow of urine through the kidney? nephron—renal pyramid—minor calyx—major calyx—renal pelvis—ureter—urinary bladder—urethra What is the functional unit of the kidney? Nephron. What are the main parts of it? Renal corpuscle (glomerulus) and renal tubule (Bowman'’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule—nephron loop/loop of Henle—distal convoluted tubule) What are the blood vessels that lead from the aorta to the glomerulus? Aorta—renal artery—segmental artery—interlobar artery—arcuate artery—cortical radiate artery—afferent arteriole—glomerulus. What are the blood vessels that lead from the glomerulus to the inferior vena cava? Glomerulus—efferent arteriole—peritubular capillaries or vasa recta—cortical radiate veins—arcuate vein—interlobar vein—renal vein—inferior vena cava What are the two types of nephrons in the kidney? Cortical nephrons - 85% of each, juxtamedullary nephrons - 15%. What are the types of capillaries is each type of nephron? Cortical - glomerulus and peritubular capillaries; juxtamedullary - glomerulus and vasa recta What is the juxtaglomerular complex (JGC)? Involved modified portions of distal portion of ascending limb of nephron loop and afferent arteriole. Describe the functions of this complex and the cells found here. This complex is important in regulating the rate of filtrate formation and blood pressure. The cells in the JGC are the macula densa cells, granular or JG cells, and extraglomerular mesangial cells. What are the functions of the cells in the JGC? Macula densa - chemoreceptors that sense and monitor electrolyte content of filtrate; granular cells - mechanoreceptors to sense BP and secrete renin; extraglomerular mesangial cells - pass signals between macula densa and granular cells