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California Laws on Reporting Abuse and Licensing Exams - Prof. Pennington, Study notes of Law

The california penal code 11166 and wic 15610.37, which detail the responsibilities of mandated reporters, such as educators and healthcare professionals, in reporting child and elder abuse. It also covers the consequences for failing to report, and the roles of law enforcement agencies and local ombudsmen. Additionally, it discusses the subversion of licensing examinations, including the unauthorized reproduction, selling, or distribution of examination materials.

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RDH Function
BUSINESS AND PROFESSIONS CODE - BPC
Definitions
BPC 1902.
For purposes of this article, the following definitions apply:
(a) Hygiene board” means the Dental Hygiene Board of California.
(b) “Dental board” means the Dental Board of California.
(c) “Direct supervision” means the supervision of dental procedures based on instructions given by a licensed
dentist who is required to be physically present in the treatment facility during the performance of those
procedures.
(d) “General supervision” means the supervision of dental procedures based on instructions given by a licensed
dentist who is not required to be physically present in the treatment facility during the performance of those
procedures.
(e) “Oral prophylaxis” means preventive and therapeutic dental procedures that include bacterial debridements with
complete removal, supra and subgingivally, of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, and stains, and the smoothing of tooth
surfaces. The objective of this treatment is to create an environment in which the patient can maintain healthy
hard and soft tissues.
RDH Duties
BPC 1907
The following functions may be performed by a registered dental hygienist, in addition to those authorized pursuant
to Sections 1908 to 1914, inclusive:
(a) All functions that may be performed by a registered dental assistant.
(b) All persons holding a license as a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice,
or registered dental hygienist in extended functions as of December 31, 2005, are authorized to perform the duties
of a registered dental assistant specified in this chapter.
All persons issued a license as a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or
registered dental hygienist in extended functions on or after January 1, 2006, shall qualify for and receive a
registered dental assistant license prior to performance of the duties of a registered dental assistant specified in this
chapter.
(Amended by Stats. 2009, Ch. 308, Sec. 11.5. (SB 819) Effective January 1, 2010.)
Limitations of RDH functions
BPC 1908.
(a) The practice of dental hygiene includes dental hygiene assessment and development, planning, and
implementation of a dental hygiene care plan. It also includes oral health education, counseling, and health
screenings.
(b) The practice of dental hygiene does not include any of the following procedures:
(1) Diagnosis and comprehensive treatment planning.
(2) Placing, condensing, carving, or removal of permanent restorations.
(3) Surgery or cutting on hard and soft tissue including, but not limited to, the removal of teeth and the cutting and
suturing of soft tissue.
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RDH Function

BUSINESS AND PROFESSIONS CODE - BPC

Definitions BPC 1902. For purposes of this article, the following definitions apply: (a) “ Hygiene board ” means the Dental Hygiene Board of California. (b) “ Dental board ” means the Dental Board of California. (c) “ Direct supervision ” means the supervision of dental procedures based on instructions given by a licensed dentist who is required to be physically present in the treatment facility during the performance of those procedures. (d) “ General supervision ” means the supervision of dental procedures based on instructions given by a licensed dentist who is not required to be physically present in the treatment facility during the performance of those procedures. (e) “ Oral prophylaxis ” means preventive and therapeutic dental procedures that include bacterial debridements with complete removal, supra and subgingivally, of calculus, soft deposits, plaque, and stains, and the smoothing of tooth surfaces. The objective of this treatment is to create an environment in which the patient can maintain healthy hard and soft tissues. RDH Duties BPC 1907 The following functions may be performed by a registered dental hygienist, in addition to those authorized pursuant to Sections 1908 to 1914, inclusive: (a) All functions that may be performed by a registered dental assistant. (b) All persons holding a license as a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienist in extended functions as of December 31, 2005 , are authorized to perform the duties of a registered dental assistant specified in this chapter. All persons issued a license as a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienist in extended functions on or after January 1, 2006 , shall qualify for and receive a registered dental assistant license prior to performance of the duties of a registered dental assistant specified in this chapter. (Amended by Stats. 2009, Ch. 308, Sec. 11.5. (SB 819) Effective January 1, 2010.) Limitations of RDH functions

BPC 1908.

(a) The practice of dental hygiene includes dental hygiene assessment and development, planning, and implementation of a dental hygiene care plan. It also includes oral health education, counseling, and health screenings. (b) The practice of dental hygiene does not include any of the following procedures: (1) Diagnosis and comprehensive treatment planning. (2) Placing, condensing, carving, or removal of permanent restorations. (3) Surgery or cutting on hard and soft tissue including, but not limited to, the removal of teeth and the cutting and suturing of soft tissue.

(4) Prescribing medication. (5) Administering local or general anesthesia or oral or parenteral conscious sedation, except for the administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen, whether administered alone or in combination with each other, or local anesthesia pursuant to Section 1909. (Added by Stats. 2008, Ch. 31, Sec. 47. Effective January 1, 2009. Operative July 1, 2009, by Sec. 55 of Ch. 31.) Direct supervision

BPC 1909.

A registered dental hygienist is authorized to perform the following procedures under direct supervision of a licensed dentist, after submitting to the hygiene board evidence of satisfactory completion of a course of instruction, approved by the hygiene board, in the procedures: (a) Soft-tissue curettage. (b) Administration of local anesthesia. (c) Administration of nitrous oxide and oxygen, whether administered alone or in combination with each other. (Amended by Stats. 2018, Ch. 858, Sec. 16. (SB 1482) Effective January 1, 2019.) General supervision

BPC 1910

A registered dental hygienist is authorized to perform the following procedures under general supervision : (a) Preventive and therapeutic interventions, including oral prophylaxis, scaling, and root planing. (b) Application of topical, therapeutic, and subgingival agents used for the control of caries and periodontal disease. (c) The taking of impressions for bleaching trays and application and activation of agents with nonlaser , light- curing devices. (d) The taking of impressions for bleaching trays and placements of in-office, tooth-whitening devices. (Added by Stats. 2008, Ch. 31, Sec. 47. Effective January 1, 2009. Operative July 1, 2009, by Sec. 55 of Ch. 31.) Procedures without supervision BPC 1911 (a) A registered dental hygienist may provide, without supervision , educational services, oral health training programs, and oral health screenings. (b) A registered dental hygienist shall refer any screened patients with possible oral abnormalities to a dentist for a comprehensive examination, diagnosis, and treatment plan. (c) In any public health program created by federal, state, or local law or administered by a federal, state, county, or local governmental entity , a registered dental hygienist may provide, without supervision , dental hygiene preventive services in addition to oral screenings, including, but not limited to, the application of fluorides and pit and fissure sealants. A registered dental hygienist employed as described in this subdivision may submit, or allow to be submitted, any insurance or third-party claims for patient services performed as authorized in this article. (Added by Stats. 2008, Ch. 31, Sec. 47. Effective January 1, 2009. Operative July 1, 2009, by Sec. 55 of Ch. 31.) Authorized Persons

BPC 1915

No person other than a registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienist in extended functions or a licensed dentist may engage in the practice of dental hygiene or perform dental hygiene procedures on patients, including, but not limited to, supragingival and subgingival scaling, dental hygiene assessment, and treatment planning, except for the following persons:

1949. A licensee may have his or her license revoked or suspended, or may be reprimanded or placed on probation by the hygiene board for unprofessional conduct, incompetence, gross negligence, repeated acts of negligence in his or her profession, receiving a license by mistake, or for any other cause applicable to the licentiate provided in this article. The proceedings under this article shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section

  1. of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, and the hygiene board shall have all the powers granted therein. (Amended by Stats. 2018, Ch. 858, Sec. 42. (SB 1482) Effective January 1, 2019.) 1950. (a) A licensee may have his or her license revoked or suspended, or may be reprimanded or placed on probation by the hygiene board, for conviction of a crime substantially related to the licensee’s qualifications, functions, or duties. The record of conviction or a copy certified by the clerk of the court or by the judge in whose court the conviction occurred shall be conclusive evidence of conviction. (b) The hygiene board shall undertake proceedings under this section upon the receipt of a certified copy of the record of conviction. A plea or verdict of guilty or a conviction following a plea of nolo contendere made to a charge of a felony or of any misdemeanor substantially related to the licensee’s qualifications, functions, or duties is deemed to be a conviction within the meaning of this section. (c) The hygiene board may reprimand a licensee or order a license suspended or revoked, or placed on probation or may decline to issue a license, when any of the following occur: (1) The time for appeal has elapsed. (2) The judgment of conviction has been affirmed on appeal. (3) An order granting probation is made suspending the imposition of sentence, irrespective of a subsequent order under any provision of the Penal Code, including, but not limited to, Section 1203.4 of the Penal Code, allowing a person to withdraw his or her plea of guilty and to enter a plea of not guilty, or setting aside the verdict of guilty, or dismissing the accusation, information, or indictment. (Amended by Stats. 2018, Ch. 858, Sec. 43. (SB 1482) Effective January 1, 2019.) Subversion of licensing examinations BPC 123, 123. BPC 123 It is a misdemeanor for any person to engage in any conduct which subverts or attempts to subvert any licensing examination or the administration of an examination, including, but not limited to: (a) Conduct which violates the security of the examination materials; removing from the examination room any examination materials without authorization; the unauthorized reproduction by any means of any portion of the actual licensing examination; aiding by any means the unauthorized reproduction of any portion of the actual licensing examination; paying or using professional or paid examination-takers for the purpose of reconstructing any portion of the licensing examination; obtaining examination questions or other examination material, except by specific authorization either before, during, or after an examination; or using or purporting to use any examination questions or materials which were improperly removed or taken from any examination for the purpose of instructing or preparing any applicant for examination; or selling, distributing, buying, receiving, or having unauthorized possession of any portion of a future, current, or previously administered licensing examination. (b) Communicating with any other examinee during the administration of a licensing examination ; copying answers from another examinee or permitting one’s answers to be copied by another examinee; having in one’s possession during the administration of the licensing examination any books, equipment, notes, written or printed materials, or data of any kind, other than the examination materials distributed, or otherwise authorized to be in

one’s possession during the examination; or impersonating any examinee or having an impersonator take the licensing examination on one’s behalf. Nothing in this section shall preclude prosecution under the authority provided for in any other provision of law. In addition to any other penalties, a person found guilty of violating this section , shall be liable for the actual damages sustained by the agency administering the examination not to exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000) and the costs of litigation. (c) If any provision of this section or the application thereof to any person or circumstances is held invalid, that invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of the section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable. (Amended by Stats. 1991, Ch. 647, Sec. 1.) BPC 123. Whenever any person has engaged, or is about to engage, in any acts or practices which constitute, or will constitute, a violation of Section 123, the superior court in and for the county wherein the acts or practices take place, or are about to take place, may issue an injunction, or other appropriate order, restraining such conduct on application of a board, the Attorney General or the district attorney of the county. The proceedings under this section shall be governed by Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 525) of Title 7 of Part 2 of the Code of Civil Procedure. The remedy provided for by this section shall be in addition to, and not a limitation on, the authority provided for in any other provision of law. (Added by renumbering Section 497 by Stats. 1989, Ch. 1022, Sec. 4.) Infection Control California Code of Regulations Who set standard precautions? CCR 1005 (a) Definitions of terms used in this section: (1) “ Standard precautions ” are a group of infection prevention practices that apply to all patients , regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status, in any setting in which healthcare is delivered. These include: hand hygiene, use of gloves, gown, mask, eye protection, or face shield, depending on the anticipated exposure, and safe handling of sharps. Standard precautions shall be used for care of all patients regardless of their diagnoses or personal infectious status. (2) “ Critical items ” confer a high risk for infection if they are contaminated with any microorganism. These include all instruments, devices, and other items used to penetrate soft tissue or bone. (3) “ Semi-critical items ” are instruments, devices and other items that are not used to penetrate soft tissue or bone , but contact oral mucous membranes, non-intact skin or other potentially infectious materials (OPIM). (4) “ Non-critical items ” are instruments, devices, equipment, and surfaces that come in contact with soil, debris, saliva, blood, OPIM and intact skin, but not oral mucous membranes. (5) “ Low-level disinfection ” is the least effective disinfection process. It kills some bacteria, some viruses and fungi, but does not kill bacterial spores or mycobacterium tuberculosis var bovis, a laboratory test organism used to classify the strength of disinfectant chemicals.

(5) Protective attire shall be worn for disinfection, sterilization, and housekeeping procedures involving the use of germicides or handling contaminated items. All DHCP shall wear reusable or disposable protective attire whenever there is a potential for aerosol spray, splashing or spattering of blood, OPIM, or chemicals and germicidal agents. Protective attire must be changed daily or between patients if they should become moist or visibly soiled. All PPE used during patient care shall be removed when leaving laboratories or areas of patient care activities. Reusable gowns shall be laundered in accordance with Cal/OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standards (Title 8, Cal. Code Regs., section 5193). Hand Hygiene : (6) All DHCP shall thoroughly wash their hands with soap and water at the start and end of each workday. DHCP shall wash contaminated or visibly soiled hands with soap and water and put on new gloves before treating each patient. If hands are. not visibly soiled or contaminated an alcohol based hand rub may be used as an alternative to soap and water****. Hands shall be thoroughly dried before donning gloves in order to prevent promotion of bacterial growth and washed again immediately after glove removal. A DHCP shall refrain from providing direct patient care if hand conditions are present that may render DHCP or patients more susceptible to opportunistic infection or exposure. (7) All DHCP who have exudative lesions or weeping dermatitis of the hand shall refrain from all direct patient care and from handling patient care equipment until the condition resolves. Gloves: (8) Medical exam gloves shall be worn whenever there is contact with mucous membranes, blood, OPIM, and during all pre-clinical, clinical, post-clinical, and laboratory procedures. When processing contaminated sharp instruments, needles, and devices , DHCP shall wear heavy-duty utility gloves to prevent puncture wounds. Gloves must be discarded when torn or punctured, upon completion of treatment, and before leaving laboratories or areas of patient care activities. All DHCP shall perform hand hygiene procedures before donning gloves and after removing and discarding gloves. Gloves shall not be washed before or after use. Needle and Sharps Safety: (9) Needles shall be recapped only by using the scoop technique or a protective device. Needles shall not be bent or broken for the purpose of disposal. Disposable needles, syringes, scalpel blades, or other sharp items and instruments shall be placed into sharps containers for disposal as close as possible to the point of use according to all applicable local, state, and federal regulations. Sterilization and Disinfection: (10) All germicides must be used in accordance with intended use and label instructions. (11) Cleaning must precede any disinfection or sterilization process. Products used to clean items or surfaces prior to disinfection procedures shall be used according to all label instructions. (12 ) Critical instruments , items and devices shall be discarded or pre-cleaned , packaged or wrapped and sterilized after each use. Methods of sterilization shall include steam under pressure (autoclaving), chemical vapor, and dry heat. If a critical item is heat-sensitive, it shall, at minimum, be processed with high-level disinfection and packaged or wrapped upon completion of the disinfection process. These instruments, items, and devices, shall remain sealed and stored in a manner so as to prevent contamination, and shall be labeled with the date of sterilization and the specific sterilizer used if more than one sterilizer is utilized in the facility. (13) Semi-critical instruments, items, and devices shall be pre-cleaned , packaged or wrapped and sterilized after each use. Methods of sterilization include steam under pressure (autoclaving), chemical vapor and dry heat. If a semi-critical item is heat sensitive, it shall, at minimum, be processed with high level disinfection and packaged or wrapped upon completion of the disinfection process. These packages or containers shall remain sealed and shall be stored in a manner so as to prevent contamination, and shall be labeled with the date of sterilization and the specific sterilizer used if more than one sterilizer is utilized in the facility.

(14) Non-critical surfaces and patient care items shall be cleaned and disinfected with a California Environmental Protection Agency (Cal/EPA)-registered hospital disinfectant (low-level disinfectant) labeled effective against HBV and HIV. When the item is visibly contaminated with blood or OPIM, a Cal/EPA- registered hospital intermediate-level disinfectant with a tuberculocidal claim shall be used. (15) All high-speed dental hand pieces, low-speed hand pieces, rotary components and dental unit attachments such as reusable air/water syringe tips and ultrasonic scaler tips, shall be packaged, labeled and heat-sterilized in a manner consistent with the same sterilization practices as a semi-critical item. (16) Single use disposable items such as prophylaxis angles, prophylaxis cups and brushes, tips for high- speed evacuators, saliva ejectors, air/water syringe tips, and gloves shall be used for one patient only and discarded. (17) Proper functioning of the sterilization cycle of all sterilization devices shall be verified at least weekly through the use of a biological indicator (such as a spore test). Test results shall be documented and maintained for 12 months. Irrigation: (18) Sterile coolants/irrigants shall be used for surgical procedures involving soft tissue or bone. Sterile coolants/irrigants must be delivered using a sterile delivery system. Facilities: (19) If non-critical items or surfaces likely to be contaminated are manufactured in a manner preventing cleaning and disinfection, they shall be protected with disposable impervious barriers. Disposable barriers shall be changed when visibly soiled or damaged and between patients. (20) Clean and disinfect all clinical contact surfaces that are not protected by impervious barriers using a California Environmental Protection Agency (Cal/EPA) registered, hospital grade low- to intermediate-level germicide after each patient. The low-level disinfectants used shall be labeled effective against HBV and HIV. Use disinfectants in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions. Clean all housekeeping surfaces (e.g. floors, walls, sinks) with a detergent and water or a Cal/EPA registered, hospital grade disinfectant. Products used to clean items or surfaces prior to disinfection procedures shall be clearly labeled and DHCP shall follow all material safety data sheet (MSDS) handling and storage instructions. (21) Dental unit water lines shall be anti-retractive. At the beginning of each workday , dental unit lines and devices shall be purged with air or flushed with water for at least two (2) minutes prior to attaching handpieces, scalers, air water syringe tips, or other devices. The dental unit lines and devices shall be flushed between each patient for a minimum of twenty (20) seconds. (22) Contaminated solid waste shall be disposed of according to applicable local, state, and federal environmental standards. Lab Areas: (23) Splash shields and equipment guards shall be used on dental laboratory lathes. Fresh pumice and a sterilized or new rag-wheel shall be used for each patient. Devices used to polish, trim, or adjust contaminated intraoral devices shall be disinfected or sterilized, properly packaged or wrapped and labeled with the date and the specific sterilizer used if more than one sterilizer is utilized in the facility. If packaging is compromised, the instruments shall be recleaned, packaged in new wrap, and sterilized again. Sterilized items will be stored in a manner so as to prevent contamination. (24) All intraoral items such as impressions, bite registrations, prosthetic and orthodontic appliances shall be cleaned and disinfected with an intermediate-level disinfectant before manipulation in the laboratory and before placement in the patient's mouth. Such items shall be thoroughly rinsed prior to placement in the patient's mouth. (c) The Dental Board of California and Dental Hygiene Committee of California shall review this regulation annually and establish a consensus.


(^1) Cal/EPA contacts: WEBSITE www.cdpr.ca.gov or Main Information Center (916) 324-0419.

(7) An administrator or employee of a public or private youth center, youth recreation program, or youth organization. (8) An administrator, board member, or employee of a public or private organization whose duties require direct contact and supervision of children, including a foster family agency. (9) An employee of a county office of education or the State Department of Education whose duties bring the employee into contact with children on a regular basis. (10) A licensee, an administrator, or an employee of a licensed community care or child day care facility. (11) A Head Start program teacher. (12) A licensing worker or licensing evaluator employed by a licensing agency, as defined in Section 11165.11. (13) A public assistance worker. (14) An employee of a child care institution, including, but not limited to, foster parents, group home personnel, and personnel of residential care facilities. (15) A social worker, probation officer, or parole officer. (16) An employee of a school district police or security department. (17) A person who is an administrator or presenter of, or a counselor in, a child abuse prevention program in a public or private school. (18) A district attorney investigator, inspector, or local child support agency caseworker, unless the investigator, inspector, or caseworker is working with an attorney appointed pursuant to Section 317 of the Welfare and Institutions Code to represent a minor. (19) A peace officer, as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2, who is not otherwise described in this section. (20) A firefighter, except for volunteer firefighters. (21) A physician and surgeon, psychiatrist, psychologist, dentist, resident, intern, podiatrist, chiropractor, licensed nurse, dental hygienist, optometrist, marriage and family therapist, clinical social worker, professional clinical counselor, or any other person who is currently licensed under Division 2 (commencing with Section 500) of the Business and Professions Code. (22) An emergency medical technician I or II, paramedic, or other person certified pursuant to Division 2. (commencing with Section 1797) of the Health and Safety Code. (23) A psychological assistant registered pursuant to Section 2913 of the Business and Professions Code. (24) A marriage and family therapist trainee, as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 4980.03 of the Business and Professions Code. (25) An unlicensed associate marriage and family therapist registered under Section 4980.44 of the Business and Professions Code. (26) A state or county public health employee who treats a minor for venereal disease or any other condition. (27) A coroner. (28) A medical examiner or other person who performs autopsies. (29) A commercial film and photographic print or image processor as specified in subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used in this article, “commercial film and photographic print or image processor” means a person who develops exposed photographic film into negatives, slides, or prints, or who makes prints from negatives or slides, or who prepares, publishes, produces, develops, duplicates, or prints any representation of information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any film, filmstrip, photograph, negative, slide, photocopy, videotape, video laser disc, computer hardware, computer software, computer floppy disk, data storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or computer-generated image, for compensation. The term includes any employee of that person; it does not include a person who develops film or makes prints or images for a public agency.

(30) A child visitation monitor. As used in this article, “child visitation monitor” means a person who, for financial compensation, acts as a monitor of a visit between a child and another person when the monitoring of that visit has been ordered by a court of law. (31) An animal control officer or humane society officer. For the purposes of this article, the following terms have the following meanings: (A) “Animal control officer” means a person employed by a city, county, or city and county for the purpose of enforcing animal control laws or regulations. (B) “Humane society officer” means a person appointed or employed by a public or private entity as a humane officer who is qualified pursuant to Section 14502 or 14503 of the Corporations Code. (32) A clergy member, as specified in subdivision (d) of Section 11166. As used in this article, “clergy member” means a priest, minister, rabbi, religious practitioner, or similar functionary of a church, temple, or recognized denomination or organization. (33) Any custodian of records of a clergy member, as specified in this section and subdivision (d) of Section 11166. (34) An employee of any police department, county sheriff’s department, county probation department, or county welfare department. (35) An employee or volunteer of a Court Appointed Special Advocate program, as defined in Rule 5.655 of the California Rules of Court. (36) A custodial officer, as defined in Section 831.5. (37) A person providing services to a minor child under Section 12300 or 12300.1 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. (38) An alcohol and drug counselor. As used in this article, an “alcohol and drug counselor” is a person providing counseling, therapy, or other clinical services for a state licensed or certified drug, alcohol, or drug and alcohol treatment program. However, alcohol or drug abuse, or both alcohol and drug abuse, is not, in and of itself, a sufficient basis for reporting child abuse or neglect. (39) A clinical counselor trainee, as defined in subdivision (g) of Section 4999.12 of the Business and Professions Code. (40) An associate professional clinical counselor registered under Section 4999.42 of the Business and Professions Code. (41) An employee or administrator of a public or private postsecondary educational institution, whose duties bring the administrator or employee into contact with children on a regular basis, or who supervises those whose duties bring the administrator or employee into contact with children on a regular basis, as to child abuse or neglect occurring on that institution’s premises or at an official activity of, or program conducted by, the institution. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as altering the lawyer-client privilege as set forth in Article 3 (commencing with Section 950) of Chapter 4 of Division 8 of the Evidence Code. (42) An athletic coach, athletic administrator, or athletic director employed by any public or private school that provides any combination of instruction for kindergarten, or grades 1 to 12, inclusive. (43) (A) A commercial computer technician as specified in subdivision (e) of Section 11166. As used in this article, “commercial computer technician” means a person who works for a company that is in the business of repairing, installing, or otherwise servicing a computer or computer component, including, but not limited to, a computer part, device, memory storage or recording mechanism, auxiliary storage recording or memory capacity, or any other material relating to the operation and maintenance of a computer or computer network system, for a fee. An employer who provides an electronic communications service or a remote computing service to the public shall be deemed to comply with this article if that employer complies with Section 2258A of Title 18 of the United States Code. (B) An employer of a commercial computer technician may implement internal procedures for facilitating reporting consistent with this article. These procedures may direct employees who are mandated reporters under this paragraph to report materials described in subdivision (e) of Section 11166 to an employee who is designated by the employer to receive the reports. An employee who is designated to receive reports under this subparagraph shall be a commercial computer technician for purposes of this article. A commercial computer technician who makes a report to the designated employee pursuant to this subparagraph shall be deemed to have complied with the requirements

(2) The agency shall be notified and a report shall be prepared and sent, faxed, or electronically transmitted even if the child has expired, regardless of whether or not the possible abuse was a factor contributing to the death, and even if suspected child abuse was discovered during an autopsy. (3) A report made by a mandated reporter pursuant to this section shall be known as a mandated report. (b) If, after reasonable efforts, a mandated reporter is unable to submit an initial report by telephone, the mandated reporter shall immediately or as soon as is practicably possible, by fax or electronic transmission, make a one-time automated written report on the form prescribed by the Department of Justice, and shall also be available to respond to a telephone follow-up call by the agency with which the mandated reporter filed the report. A mandated reporter who files a one-time automated written report because the mandated reporter was unable to submit an initial report by telephone is not required to submit a written follow-up report. (1) The one-time automated written report form prescribed by the Department of Justice shall be clearly identifiable so that it is not mistaken for a standard written follow-up report. In addition, the automated one-time report shall contain a section that allows the mandated reporter to state the reason the initial telephone call was not able to be completed. The reason for the submission of the one-time automated written report in lieu of the procedure prescribed in subdivision (a) shall be captured in the Child Welfare Services/Case Management System (CWS/ CMS). The department shall work with stakeholders to modify reporting forms and the CWS/CMS as is necessary to accommodate the changes enacted by these provisions. (2) This subdivision shall not become operative until the CWS/CMS is updated to capture the information prescribed in this subdivision. (3) This subdivision shall become inoperative three years after this subdivision becomes operative or on January 1, 2009, whichever occurs first. (4) This section does not supersede the requirement that a mandated reporter first attempt to make a report via telephone, or that agencies specified in Section 11165.9 accept reports from mandated reporters and other persons as required. (c) A mandated reporter who fails to report an incident of known or reasonably suspected child abuse or neglect as required by this section is guilty of a misdemeanor punishable by up to six months confinement in a county jail or by a fine of one thousand dollars ($1,000) or by both that imprisonment and fine. If a mandated reporter intentionally conceals the mandated reporter’s failure to report an incident known by the mandated reporter to be abuse or severe neglect under this section, the failure to report is a continuing offense until an agency specified in Section 11165.9 discovers the offense. (d) (1) A clergy member who acquires knowledge or a reasonable suspicion of child abuse or neglect during a penitential communication is not subject to subdivision (a). For the purposes of this subdivision, “penitential communication” means a communication, intended to be in confidence, including, but not limited to, a sacramental confession, made to a clergy member who, in the course of the discipline or practice of the clergy member’s church, denomination, or organization, is authorized or accustomed to hear those communications, and under the discipline, tenets, customs, or practices of the clergy member’s church, denomination, or organization, has a duty to keep those communications secret. (2) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to modify or limit a clergy member’s duty to report known or suspected child abuse or neglect when the clergy member is acting in some other capacity that would otherwise make the clergy member a mandated reporter. (3) (A) On or before January 1, 2004, a clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member may report to an agency specified in Section 11165.9 that the clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member, prior to January 1, 1997, in the clergy member’s professional capacity or within the scope of the clergy member’s employment, other than during a penitential communication, acquired knowledge or had a reasonable suspicion that a child had been the victim of sexual abuse and that the clergy member or any custodian of records for the clergy member did not previously report the abuse to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. The provisions of Section 11172 shall apply to all reports made pursuant to this paragraph. (B) This paragraph shall apply even if the victim of the known or suspected abuse has reached the age of majority by the time the required report is made. (C) The local law enforcement agency shall have jurisdiction to investigate any report of child abuse made pursuant to this paragraph even if the report is made after the victim has reached the age of majority.

(e) (1) A commercial film, photographic print, or image processor who has knowledge of or observes, within the scope of that person’s professional capacity or employment, any film, photograph, videotape, negative, slide, or any representation of information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any film, filmstrip, photograph, negative, slide, photocopy, videotape, video laser disc, computer hardware, computer software, computer floppy disk, data storage medium, CD-ROM, computer-generated equipment, or computer-generated image depicting a child under 16 years of age engaged in an act of sexual conduct, shall, immediately or as soon as practicably possible, telephonically report the instance of suspected abuse to the law enforcement agency located in the county in which the images are seen. Within 36 hours of receiving the information concerning the incident, the reporter shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written followup report of the incident with a copy of the image or material attached. (2) A commercial computer technician who has knowledge of or observes, within the scope of the technician’s professional capacity or employment, any representation of information, data, or an image, including, but not limited to, any computer hardware, computer software, computer file, computer floppy disk, data storage medium, CD- ROM, computer-generated equipment, or computer-generated image that is retrievable in perceivable form and that is intentionally saved, transmitted, or organized on an electronic medium, depicting a child under 16 years of age engaged in an act of sexual conduct, shall immediately, or as soon as practicably possible, telephonically report the instance of suspected abuse to the law enforcement agency located in the county in which the images or materials are seen. As soon as practicably possible after receiving the information concerning the incident, the reporter shall prepare and send, fax, or electronically transmit a written followup report of the incident with a brief description of the images or materials. (3) For purposes of this article, “commercial computer technician” includes an employee designated by an employer to receive reports pursuant to an established reporting process authorized by subparagraph (B) of paragraph (43) of subdivision (a) of Section 11165.7. (4) As used in this subdivision, “electronic medium” includes, but is not limited to, a recording, CD-ROM, magnetic disk memory, magnetic tape memory, CD, DVD, thumbdrive, or any other computer hardware or media. (5) As used in this subdivision, “sexual conduct” means any of the following: (A) Sexual intercourse, including genital-genital, oral-genital, anal-genital, or oral-anal, whether between persons of the same or opposite sex or between humans and animals. (B) Penetration of the vagina or rectum by any object. (C) Masturbation for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer. (D) Sadomasochistic abuse for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer. (E) Exhibition of the genitals, pubic, or rectal areas of a person for the purpose of sexual stimulation of the viewer. (f) Any mandated reporter who knows or reasonably suspects that the home or institution in which a child resides is unsuitable for the child because of abuse or neglect of the child shall bring the condition to the attention of the agency to which, and at the same time as, the mandated reporter makes a report of the abuse or neglect pursuant to subdivision (a). (g) Any other person who has knowledge of or observes a child whom the person knows or reasonably suspects has been a victim of child abuse or neglect may report the known or suspected instance of child abuse or neglect to an agency specified in Section 11165.9. For purposes of this section, “any other person” includes a mandated reporter who acts in the person’s private capacity and not in the person’s professional capacity or within the scope of the person’s employment. (h) When two or more persons, who are required to report, jointly have knowledge of a known or suspected instance of child abuse or neglect, and when there is agreement among them, the telephone report may be made by a member of the team selected by mutual agreement and a single report may be made and signed by the selected member of the reporting team. Any member who has knowledge that the member designated to report has failed to do so shall thereafter make the report. (i) (1) The reporting duties under this section are individual, and no supervisor or administrator may impede or inhibit the reporting duties, and no person making a report shall be subject to any sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures to facilitate reporting and apprise supervisors and administrators of reports may be established provided that they are not inconsistent with this article. An internal policy shall not direct an employee to allow the employee’s supervisor to file or process a mandated report under any circumstances.

and Professions Code, a state or county public health or social service employee who treats an elder or a dependent adult for any condition, a coroner, or a substance use disorder counselor. As used in this section, a “substance use disorder counselor” is a person providing counseling services in an alcoholism or drug abuse recovery and treatment program licensed, certified, or funded under Part 2 (commencing with Section 11760) of Division 10.5 of the Health and Safety Code. (Amended by Stats. 2017, Ch. 407, Sec. 1. (AB 575) Effective January 1, 2018.)

Mandatory and Nonmandatory Reports of Abuse

WIC 15630 (a) Any person who has assumed full or intermittent responsibility for the care or custody of an elder or dependent adult, whether or not he or she receives compensation, including administrators, supervisors, and any licensed staff of a public or private facility that provides care or services for elder or dependent adults, or any elder or dependent adult care custodian, health practitioner, clergy member, or employee of a county adult protective services agency or a local law enforcement agency, is a mandated reporter. (b) (1) Any mandated reporter who, in his or her professional capacity, or within the scope of his or her employment, has observed or has knowledge of an incident that reasonably appears to be physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect, or is told by an elder or dependent adult that he or she has experienced behavior, including an act or omission, constituting physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect, or reasonably suspects that abuse, shall report the known or suspected instance of abuse by telephone or through a confidential Internet reporting tool, as authorized by Section 15658, immediately or as soon as practicably possible. If reported by telephone, a written report shall be sent, or an Internet report shall be made through the confidential Internet reporting tool established in Section 15658, within two working days. (A) If the suspected or alleged abuse is physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, and the abuse occurred in a long-term care facility, except a state mental health hospital or a state developmental center, the following shall occur: (i) If the suspected abuse results in serious bodily injury, a telephone report shall be made to the local law enforcement agency immediately, but also no later than within two hours of the mandated reporter observing , obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse, and a written report shall be made to the local ombudsman, the corresponding licensing agency, and the local law enforcement agency within two hours of the mandated reporter observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse. (ii) If the suspected abuse does not result in serious bodily injury, a telephone report shall be made to the local law enforcement agency within 24 hours of the mandated reporter observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse, and a written report shall be made to the local ombudsman, the corresponding licensing agency, and the local law enforcement agency within 24 hours of the mandated reporter observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting the physical abuse. (iii) When the suspected abuse is allegedly caused by a resident with a physician’s diagnosis of dementia, and there is no serious bodily injury, as reasonably determined by the mandated reporter, drawing upon his or her training or experience, the reporter shall report to the local ombudsman or law enforcement agency by telephone, immediately or as soon as practicably possible, and by written report, within 24 hours. (iv) When applicable, reports made pursuant to clauses (i) and (ii) shall be deemed to satisfy the reporting requirements of the federal Elder Justice Act of 2009, as set out in Subtitle H of the federal Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (Public Law 111-148), Section 1418.91 of the Health and Safety Code, and Section 72541 of Title 22 of California Code of Regulations. When a local law enforcement agency receives an initial report of suspected abuse in a long-term care facility pursuant to this subparagraph, the local law enforcement agency may coordinate efforts with the local ombudsman to provide the most immediate and appropriate response warranted to investigate the mandated report. The local ombudsman and local law enforcement agencies may collaborate to develop protocols to implement this subparagraph. (B) Notwithstanding the rulemaking provisions of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, or any other law, the department may implement subparagraph (A), in whole or in part, by means of all-county letters, provider bulletins, or other similar instructions without taking regulatory action.

(C) If the suspected or alleged abuse is abuse other than physical abuse, and the abuse occurred in a long-term care facility, except a state mental health hospital or a state developmental center, a telephone report and a written report shall be made to the local ombudsman or the local law enforcement agency. (D) With regard to abuse reported pursuant to subparagraph (C), the local ombudsman and the local law enforcement agency shall, as soon as practicable, except in the case of an emergency or pursuant to a report required to be made pursuant to clause (v), in which case these actions shall be taken immediately, do all of the following: (i) Report to the State Department of Public Health any case of known or suspected abuse occurring in a long-term health care facility, as defined in subdivision (a) of Section 1418 of the Health and Safety Code. (ii) Report to the State Department of Social Services any case of known or suspected abuse occurring in a residential care facility for the elderly, as defined in Section 1569.2 of the Health and Safety Code, or in an adult day program, as defined in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1502 of the Health and Safety Code. (iii) Report to the State Department of Public Health and the California Department of Aging any case of known or suspected abuse occurring in an adult day health care center, as defined in subdivision (b) of Section 1570.7 of the Health and Safety Code. (iv) Report to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud and Elder Abuse any case of known or suspected criminal activity. (v) Report all cases of known or suspected physical abuse and financial abuse to the local district attorney’s office in the county where the abuse occurred. (E) (i) If the suspected or alleged abuse or neglect occurred in a state mental hospital or a state developmental center, and the suspected or alleged abuse or neglect resulted in any of the following incidents, a report shall be made immediately, but no later than within two hours of the mandated reporter observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting abuse, to designated investigators of the State Department of State Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services, and also to the local law enforcement agency: (I) A death. (II) A sexual assault, as defined in Section 15610.63. (III) An assault with a deadly weapon, as described in Section 245 of the Penal Code, by a nonresident of the state mental hospital or state developmental center. (IV) An assault with force likely to produce great bodily injury, as described in Section 245 of the Penal Code. (V) An injury to the genitals when the cause of the injury is undetermined. (VI) A broken bone when the cause of the break is undetermined. (ii) All other reports of suspected or alleged abuse or neglect that occurred in a state mental hospital or a state developmental center shall be made immediately, but no later than within two hours of the mandated reporter observing, obtaining knowledge of, or suspecting abuse, to designated investigators of the State Department of State Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services, or to the local law enforcement agency. (iii) When a local law enforcement agency receives an initial report of suspected or alleged abuse or neglect in a state mental hospital or a state developmental center pursuant to clause (i), the local law enforcement agency shall coordinate efforts with the designated investigators of the State Department of State Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services to provide the most immediate and appropriate response warranted to investigate the mandated report. The designated investigators of the State Department of State Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services and local law enforcement agencies may collaborate to develop protocols to implement this clause. (iv) Except in an emergency, the local law enforcement agency shall, as soon as practicable, report any case of known or suspected criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud and Elder Abuse. (v) Notwithstanding any other law, a mandated reporter who is required to report pursuant to Section 4427.5 shall not be required to report under clause (i). (F) If the abuse has occurred in any place other than a long-term care facility, a state mental hospital, or a state developmental center, the report shall be made to the adult protective services agency or the local law enforcement agency.

(3) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a state mental health hospital or a state developmental center, the report may be made to the designated investigator of the State Department of State Hospitals or the State Department of Developmental Services or to a local law enforcement agency. Except in an emergency, the local law enforcement agency shall report any case of known or suspected criminal activity to the Bureau of Medi-Cal Fraud and Elder Abuse, as soon as is practicable. (4) If the suspected or alleged abuse occurred in a place other than a place described in paragraph (2) or (3), the report may be made to the county adult protective services agency. (5) If the conduct involves criminal activity not covered in subdivision (b), it may be immediately reported to the appropriate law enforcement agency. (d) If two or more mandated reporters are present and jointly have knowledge or reasonably suspect that types of abuse of an elder or a dependent adult for which a report is or is not mandated have occurred, and there is agreement among them, the telephone report or Internet report, as authorized by Section 15658, may be made by a member of the team selected by mutual agreement, and a single report may be made and signed by the selected member of the reporting team. Any member who has knowledge that the member designated to report has failed to do so shall thereafter make the report. (e) A telephone report or Internet report, as authorized by Section 15658, of a known or suspected instance of elder or dependent adult abuse shall include, if known, the name of the person making the report, the name and age of the elder or dependent adult, the present location of the elder or dependent adult, the names and addresses of family members or any other adult responsible for the elder’s or dependent adult’s care, the nature and extent of the elder’s or dependent adult’s condition, the date of the incident, and any other information, including information that led that person to suspect elder or dependent adult abuse, as requested by the agency receiving the report. (f) The reporting duties under this section are individual, and no supervisor or administrator shall impede or inhibit the reporting duties, and no person making the report shall be subject to any sanction for making the report. However, internal procedures to facilitate reporting, ensure confidentiality, and apprise supervisors and administrators of reports may be established, provided they are not inconsistent with this chapter. (g) (1) Whenever this section requires a county adult protective services agency to report to a law enforcement agency, the law enforcement agency shall, immediately upon request, provide a copy of its investigative report concerning the reported matter to that county adult protective services agency. (2) Whenever this section requires a law enforcement agency to report to a county adult protective services agency, the county adult protective services agency shall, immediately upon request, provide to that law enforcement agency a copy of its investigative report concerning the reported matter. (3) The requirement to disclose investigative reports pursuant to this subdivision shall not include the disclosure of social services records or case files that are confidential, nor shall this subdivision be construed to allow disclosure of any reports or records if the disclosure would be prohibited by any other provision of state or federal law. (h ) Failure to report, or impeding or inhibiting a report of, physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect of an elder or dependent adult, in violation of this section, is a misdemeanor, punishable by not more than six months in the county jail, by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. Any mandated reporter who willfully fails to report, or impedes or inhibits a report of, physical abuse, as defined in Section 15610.63, abandonment, abduction, isolation, financial abuse, or neglect of an elder or dependent adult, in violation of this section, if that abuse results in death or great bodily injury, shall be punished by not more than one year in a county jail, by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or by both that fine and imprisonment. If a mandated reporter intentionally conceals his or her failure to report an incident known by the mandated reporter to be abuse or severe neglect under this section, the failure to report is a continuing offense until a law enforcement agency specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 15630 discovers the offense. (i) For purposes of this section, “dependent adult” shall have the same meaning as in Section 15610.23. (Amended by Stats. 2013, Ch. 673, Sec. 3. (AB 602) Effective January 1, 2014.)

Unprofessional Conduct

Unprofessional conduct

BPC 1950. Unprofessional conduct by a person licensed under this article is defined as, but is not limited to, any one of the following: (a) The obtaining of any fee by fraud or misrepresentation. (b) The aiding or abetting of any unlicensed person to practice dentistry or dental hygiene. (c) The aiding or abetting of a licensed person to practice dentistry or dental hygiene unlawfully. (d) The committing of any act or acts of sexual abuse, misconduct, or relations with a patient that are substantially related to the practice of dental hygiene. (e) The use of any false, assumed, or fictitious name, either as an individual, firm, corporation, or otherwise, or any name other than the name under which he or she is licensed to practice, in advertising or in any other manner indicating that he or she is practicing or will practice dentistry, except that name as is specified in a valid permit issued pursuant to Section 1962. (f) The practice of accepting or receiving any commission or the rebating in any form or manner of fees for professional services, radiographs, prescriptions, or other services or articles supplied to patients. (g) The making use by the licensee or any agent of the licensee of any advertising statements of a character tending to deceive or mislead the public. (h) The advertising of either professional superiority or the advertising of performance of professional services in a superior manner. This subdivision shall not prohibit advertising permitted by subdivision (h) of Section 651. (i) The employing or the making use of solicitors. (j) Advertising in violation of Section 651. (k) Advertising to guarantee any dental hygiene service, or to perform any dental hygiene procedure painlessly. This subdivision shall not prohibit advertising permitted by Section 651. (l) The violation of any of the provisions of this division. (m) The permitting of any person to operate dental radiographic equipment who has not met the requirements to do so, as determined by the hygiene board. (n) The clearly excessive administering of drugs or treatment, or the clearly excessive use of treatment procedures, or the clearly excessive use of treatment facilities, as determined by the customary practice and standards of the dental hygiene profession. Any person who violates this subdivision is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished by a fine of not less than one hundred dollars ($100) or more than six hundred dollars ($600), or by imprisonment for a term of not less than 60 days or more than 180 days, or by both a fine and imprisonment. (o) The use of threats or harassment against any patient or licensee for providing evidence in any possible or actual disciplinary action, or other legal action; or the discharge of an employee primarily based on the employee’s attempt to comply with the provisions of this chapter or to aid in the compliance. (p) Suspension or revocation of a license issued, or discipline imposed, by another state or territory on grounds that would be the basis of discipline in this state. (q) The alteration of a patient’s record with intent to deceive. (r) Unsanitary or unsafe office conditions, as determined by the customary practice and standards of the dental hygiene profession. (s) The abandonmen t of the patient by the licensee, without written notice to the patient that treatment is to be discontinued and before the patient has ample opportunity to secure the services of another registered dental hygienist, registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienist in extended functions and provided the health of the patient is not jeopardized. (t) The willful misrepresentation of facts relating to a disciplinary action to the patients of a disciplined licensee. (u) Use of fraud in the procurement of any license issued pursuant to this article.