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CDC 4Y051 Test 4: Questions with 100% Verified Solutions, Exams of Dentistry

A series of multiple-choice questions related to medical emergencies and safety protocols in a dental setting. Each question is followed by the correct answer, providing a valuable resource for students studying dental procedures and emergency response. The questions cover topics such as diabetes, epilepsy, cerebrovascular accidents, syncope, anaphylactic shock, and basic life support procedures.

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2024/2025

Available from 03/14/2025

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CDC 4Y051 TEST 4: QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS
1) You have a patient who is unable to metabolize sugar normally. This patient has a
disease called
a. epilepsy.
b. hypoglycemia.
c. diabetes mellitus.
d. angioneurotic edema. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. diabetes mellitus
2) What condition is defined as a loss of consciousness during hyperglycemia?
a. Insulin shock.
b. Diabetic coma.
c. Low blood sugar.
d. Psychogenic shock. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Diabetic coma
3) What condition is defined as an unconscious state of hypoglycemia?
a. Insulin shock.
b. Diabetic coma.
c. Psychogenic shock.
d. Anaphylactic shock. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Insulin shock.
4) What condition is a neurological disorder usually characterized by involuntary
convulsions of the muscular system?
a. Postural hypotension.
b. Psychogenic shock.
c. Hypoglycemia.
d. Epilepsy. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Epilepsy
5) Which emergency condition is a sudden interruption of the blood supply to the
brain, resulting in damage to part of the brain?
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CDC 4Y051 TEST 4 : QUESTIONS WITH 100% VERIFIED

SOLUTIONS

  1. You have a patient who is unable to metabolize sugar normally. This patient has a disease called a. epilepsy. b. hypoglycemia. c. diabetes mellitus. d. angioneurotic edema. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. diabetes mellitus
  2. What condition is defined as a loss of consciousness during hyperglycemia? a. Insulin shock. b. Diabetic coma. c. Low blood sugar. d. Psychogenic shock. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Diabetic coma
  3. What condition is defined as an unconscious state of hypoglycemia? a. Insulin shock. b. Diabetic coma. c. Psychogenic shock. d. Anaphylactic shock. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Insulin shock.
  4. What condition is a neurological disorder usually characterized by involuntary convulsions of the muscular system? a. Postural hypotension. b. Psychogenic shock. c. Hypoglycemia. d. Epilepsy. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Epilepsy
  5. Which emergency condition is a sudden interruption of the blood supply to the brain, resulting in damage to part of the brain?

a. Heart attack. b. Angina pectoris. c. Congestive heart failure. d. Cerebrovascular accident. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Cerebrovascular accident.

  1. Which office has primary responsibility for the safety aspect of AFOSH? a. Wing commander. b. Inspector General. c. Unit commander. d. Surgeon general. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Inspector General.
  2. Why are supervisors considered key players in the AFOSH program? a. Are directly responsible for maintaining safe environments. b. Train personnel on equipment. c. Are in a position to fix hazards. d. Regulation dictates. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Are directly responsible for maintaining safe environments
  3. The DSC is responsible for ensuring the dental facility meets all health and safety requirements. Which is not an example of cooperating agencies? a. USAF Dental Evaluation and Consultation Service. b. Safety Office. c. Fire Department. d. Training Office. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Training Office.
  4. Providing guidance on techniques and procedures to the USAF dental personnel is an example of whose responsibility? a. Dental Evaluation and Consultations Services. b. Dental squadron commander. c. Base safety office. d. Public Health. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Dental Evaluation and Consultations Services.
  5. Why do you, as the assistant, have the primary responsibility to perform a safety check of equipment in your work area?

b. environmental safety. c. preoperational planning. d. proper equipment maintenance. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. preoperational planning.

  1. Why should you take time to study MSDSs? a. Fulfill annual safety training requirements. b. Will be taught in the Hazardous Materials Course. c. Are disposed of after everybody has reviewed them. d. Contain information on safe handling of each product. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Contain information on safe handling of each product.
  2. Acid soaked items should always be handled a. as little as possible. b. with forceps or gloves. c. in well-ventilated areas. d. using rubber tipped forceps. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. with forceps or gloves
  3. When sanitizing amalgam, what is the next step after flushing the lines? a. Inspect the trap for tooth fragments. b. Replace the strainer and separator lid. c. Remove lid to allow air through. d. Prepare sodium hypochlorite. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Remove lid to allow air through
  4. Which is the first thing you would treat when remembering the order of treating injuries? a. Shock. b. Hemorrhage. c. Asphyxiation. d. Unconsciousness. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Asphyxiation
  5. Which dental emergency kit item is used as a mild stimulant for syncope? a. Ammonia inhalant. b. Ephedrine sulfate.

c. Pentobarbital. d. Benadryl. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Ammonia inhalant

  1. How are the nitroglycerin tablets in the dental emergency kit used on patients? a. As an antiallergic drug. b. As a mild stimulant for syncope. c. As a coronary dilator for angina pectoris. d. When there is severe shock or an acute reaction to drugs. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. As a coronary dilator for angina pectoris
  2. How is the amount of oxygen remaining in the cylinder registered? a. Liter gauge. b. Cylinder valve. c. Pressure gauge. d. Regulator control adjust handle. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Pressure gauge
  3. Masks for the oxygen equipment should be stored in a. each DTR. b. the oral surgery section only. c. the medical supply section. d. dental supply. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. each DTR
  4. When would you place the oral nasal mask over patient's mouth and nose? a. Before adjusting oxygen flow. b. After adjusting oxygen flow. c. With use of the Ambu-bag. d. Never. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. After adjusting oxygen flow
  5. You should adjust the oxygen flow rate of the portable oxygen equipment to a minimum of 6 liters per minute. For an adult, this flow rate can be increased to a. 2 to 4 liters per minute. b. 4 to 6 liters per minute. c. 6 to 8 liters per minute. d. 8 to10 liters per minute. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. 8 to10 liters per minute
  6. The normal pulse rate for adults is

a. circulatory pressure. b. systolic pressure. c. diastolic pressure. d. pulse pressure. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. pulse pressure

  1. In death and near-death states, a patient's eye pupils will appear a. constricted before light is directed into the eyes. b. constricted when light is directed into the eyes. c. dilated when light is directed into the eyes. d. widely dilated, with no response to light. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. widely dilated, with no response to light
  2. All are steps to take for syncope symptoms before giving oxygen and ammonia inhalant except a. apply cool cloth to patient's forehead, or back of neck. b. monitor pulse rate and blood pressure. c. position in supine position. d. elevate head. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. elevate head.
  3. If your patient show signs of postural hypotension, your first action should be to a. administer oxygen. b. monitor vital signs. c. apply cold compress to head and neck. d. return patient to supine position. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. return patient to supine position
  4. As a dental assistant, when do you prepare the sterile syringe for a patient experiencing anaphylactic shock? a. At the request of the clinic commander. b. At the request of the dentist present. c. Upon receiving emergency kit. d. After oxygen is administered. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. At the request of the dentist present
  5. What drug may initially be administered intramuscularly for the treatment of anaphylactic shock?

a. Epinephrine of 1:10,000. b. Epinephrine of 1.1,000. c. Antihistamines. d. Corticosteroids. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Epinephrine of 1.1,

  1. What type of reaction is caused by administering too much of a drug or administering it too quickly? a. Toxic. b. Allergic. c. Serum sickness. d. Hypersensitivity. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Toxic
  2. When a patient suffers from a toxic reaction, place patient in the supine position then a. place ammonia inhalant under nose. b. give Epinephrine 1:1,000. c. monitor vital signs. d. administer oxygen. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. administer oxygen
  3. What type of penicillin reaction is characterized by urticaria, angioneurotic edema, fever, pain in the joints, and swelling? a. Delayed. b. Immediate. c. Anaphylactic. d. Hypersensitivity. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Delayed
  4. Excessive, rapid respiration or over breathing is the primary sign of a. asthma. b. hyperventilation. c. pulmonary arrest. d. an airway obstruction. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. hyperventilation
  5. Your patient has a partially obstructed airway and the object has progressed into the trachea. In this situation, you would a. allow the patient to sit up. b. position the patient in the supine position.

b. Under water in a tightly closed plastic container. c. Dry in a sealed, air tight container. d. Dry in an open container. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Dry in a sealed, air tight container

  1. When should a small Mercury spill be cleaned up? a. Daily. b. Immediately. c. After the patient leaves. d. As soon as it is convenient. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Immediately
  2. If a chemical reaction of combustion takes place, then what is present? a. Fuel, oxygen, and wind. b. Oxygen, heat, and fuel. c. Heat, fuel, and oxygen. d. Wind, fuel, and heat. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Heat, fuel, and oxygen
  3. Which one of the following examples is used to prevent projectile injuries? a. Wear of protective eyeglasses and face masks by staff members. b. Use of rubber dams, and wear of protective eyeglasses by patients only. c. Use of rubber dams, and wear of protective eyeglasses by patients and staff members. d. Wear of protective eyeglasses by patients and staff members, and use of face masks by staff members. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Use of rubber dams, and wear of protective eyeglasses by patients and staff members
  4. What example prevents occupational hearing loss? a. Protective gear devices. b. Maintenance of equipment only. c. Protective gear devices and equipment operation. d. Maintenance of equipment and use of protective gear devices. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Maintenance of equipment and use of protective gear devices.
  5. What are your first concerns when you witness or are involved in an accident? a. Clear the area as quickly as possible.

b. Call emergency personnel to the scene. c. Contain the situation that caused the accident. d. Remove the victims from hazardous situations and render emergency first aid -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Remove the victims from hazardous situations and render emergency first aid

  1. Clinical, community, and children's phases are an example of what program? a. Continuing Education. b. Preventive Dentistry. c. General Dentistry. d. Dental Safety. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Preventive Dentistry
  2. Once a member is identified as needing a periodic dental exam, what is the next step? a. Schedule patient. b. Verify with DDS-W system. c. Contact members individually. d. Forward roster to each unit health monitor. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Forward roster to each unit health monitor.
  3. What is the second step when performing a dental prophylaxis? a. Removal of plaque. b. Fluoride treatment. c. Floss, if needed. d. Polish teeth, if needed. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Polish teeth, if needed
  4. Which is a part of the community phase of the USAF Preventive Dentistry Program? a. Dental prophylaxis. b. Construction of mouthguards. c. Fluoridation of the water supply. d. Oral health program for food handlers. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Fluoridation of the water supply
  5. Where do you find the eligibility criteria for participation in the family member children's phase?

c. replace part of your instruction. d. demonstrate materials. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. supplement your instruction

  1. During your presentation, you can keep your voice interesting by a. varying the pitch, rate, and force. b. maintaining a constant pitch, rate, and force. c. varying the pitch and force but maintaining a constant rate. d. maintaining a constant pitch and rate but varying the force. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. varying the pitch, rate, and force
  2. What can you do during your presentation to show your audience that you are interested in them and to check for signs of doubt, confusion, or boredom? a. Use direct eye contact. b. Avoid physical distractions. c. Use natural hand and body gestures. d. Keep your voice interesting and not monotonous. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Use direct eye contact.
  3. If your patient has had radiographs taken since the previous oral prophylaxis, evaluate them for a. periodontal abscesses. b. inflammation of the gingiva. c. bleeding in the periodontal space. d. subgingival calculus and overhanging margins. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. subgingival calculus and overhanging margins.
  4. What must be performed before you seat your patient? a. Pull patients record and perform infection control. b. Evaluate record and perform infection control. c. Perform infection control only. d. Pull and evaluate record. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Evaluate record and perform infection control.
  5. How far do you keep the dental unit light above or in front of the patient? a. At arms' length.

b. As close to the operator as possible. c. As close to the patient's head as possible. d. As far away from the patient as possible. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. At arms' length

  1. During the screening exam, what phase and step are the lips and labial inspected? a. Phase 1, step 1. b. Phase 1, step 2. c. Phase 2, step 1. d. Phase 2, step 2. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Phase 1, step 2
  2. As a general rule, which method is most practical for locating calculus in the periodontal pocket? a. Use disclosing chemicals. b. Dry teeth with a stream of air. c. Pay special attention to those areas where gingival inflammation is apparent. d. Locate deposits by inserting an explorer or fine curette into the pocket area and feel the rough texture. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Locate deposits by inserting an explorer or fine curette into the pocket area and feel the rough texture.
  3. After you locate calculus, your next step is to a. review radiographs for confirmation. b. insert explorer or curette into pocket. c. perform gross debridement. d. choose your instrument. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. choose your instrument
  4. If a patient has gross supragingival calculus deposits, what instrument is particularly useful for performing the gross scaling? a. Curettes. b. Scalers. c. Ultrasonic instrument. d. Finishing bur on a slow-speed handpiece. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Ultrasonic instrument
  5. When do you bleed trapped air from the ultrasonic handpiece assembly?
  1. The working end of the ultrasonic instrument should be adapted at what tip-to- tooth angulation? a. 5 to 10 degrees. b. 10 to 15 degrees. c. 20 to 30 degrees. d. 30 to 40 degrees. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. 10 to 15 degrees.
  2. Which curette is used to scale anterior teeth? a. Gracey 1/2. b. Gracey 7/8. c. Gracey 11/12. d. Gracey 13/14. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ a. Gracey 1/2.
  3. Which curette is specially designed to scale distal surfaces of the posterior teeth? a. Gracey 1/2. b. Gracey 7/8. c. Gracey 11/12. d. Gracey 13/14. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Gracey 13/
  4. Which is not a use for the dental mouth mirror? a. Reflect light onto desired surfaces. b. View a mirror image of the teeth. c. Retract soft tissue. d. Detect caries. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Detect caries
  5. You should avoid individual finger movements during scaling because this a. may be ineffective. b. is extremely fatiguing. c. could injure patients. d. slows down the scaling procedure. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. is extremely fatiguing
  6. The polishing cup and brush are used for prophylaxis work in conjunction with a a. latch angle. b. friction grip attachment. c. high-speed handpiece.

d. right-angle handpiece. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. right-angle handpiece.

  1. The last thing you do when applying fluoride is to tell your patient to avoid eating, drinking, rinsing, or smoking for a. 10 minutes. b. 15 minutes. c. 30 minutes. d. 45 minutes. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. 30 minutes
  2. What is the last routine assessment step in implant maintenance? a. Check for presence or absence of mobility. b. Perform visual examination. c. Take radiographs. d. Probe soft tissue. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Take radiographs.
  3. If an ultramicroscopic, disease-causing agents does not belong to neither the plant nor animal kingdom it is called a. rickettsiae. b. protozoa. c. viruses. d. spores. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. viruses
  4. When showing and explaining why good oral hygiene care is needed, what can have the greatest impact on the patient? a. Charts. b. Pictures. c. Literature. d. Disclosing agent. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Disclosing agent.
  5. What is the most important thing that you can tell your patients during a dental health talk? a. How to brush their teeth. b. How to floss their teeth. c. The causes of dental disease. d. How to clean their mouths properly. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. How to clean their mouths properly.
  1. Which food group contains a fatty acid with more than one missing hydrogen atom? a. Saturated fatty foods. b. Fats from animal sources. c. Oleic acids found in various animal and plant sources. d. Oils such as those extracted from corn, safflower, and soybeans. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Oils such as those extracted from corn, safflower, and soybeans
  2. Fats do not carry which fat-soluble vitamins? a. A. b. B. c. D. d. E. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. B
  3. The average American diet contains what percentage of its calories in the form of fat? a. 14 to 16 percent. b. 24 to 26 percent. c. 34 to 36 percent. d. 64 to 66 percent. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. 34 to 36 percent.
  4. In an ideal diet, what percentage of the total calorie intake is recommended to be fat? a. 10 to 15 percent. b. 20 to 25 percent. c. 25 to 30 percent. d. 40 to 45percent. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. 25 to 30 percent
  5. A deficiency of which vitamin can cause skin changes such as cracks at the corners of the mouth? a. Thiamine. b. Niacin. c. Riboflavin. d. Folacin. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. Riboflavin.
  1. The chief reason that fiber, as a source of bulk, is included in the diet is to a. absorb moisture. b. harden the fecal mass. c. stimulate peristaltic action. d. solidify and dry the fecal mass. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ c. stimulate peristaltic action
  2. What food is not part of the milk group of MyPlate? a. Swiss cheese. b. Cream cheese. c. Yogurt. d. Pudding. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ b. Cream cheese
  3. What portion of MyPlate is a key element to living a longer, healthier life? a. Variety. b. Moderation. c. Proportionality. d. Physical activity. -- Correct Answer ✔✔ d. Physical activity.