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1. Which component of blood is primarily responsible for oxygen transport? A. Leukocytes B. Thrombocytes C. Erythrocytes D. Plasma Answer : C Rationale : Erythrocytes (red blood cells) contain hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen for transport throughout the body. 2. A patient presents with a hemoglobin level of 8 g/dL. This finding is indicative of: A. Polycythemia B. Leukopenia C. Anemia D. Thrombocytopenia Answer : C Rationale : Normal hemoglobin levels are approximately 12-16 g/dL for females and 14-18 g/dL for males. A level of 8 g/dL suggests anemia. 3. Which laboratory test is used to assess kidney function? A. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) C. Troponin I D. Amylase Answer : B Rationale : BUN measures the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, which is a waste product filtered by the kidneys. Elevated levels may indicate impaired kidney function. 4. Elevated levels of which enzyme are most indicative of liver damage? A. Creatine kinase (CK) B. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) C. Lipase D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) Answer : B Rationale : AST is an enzyme found in the liver; elevated levels can indicate liver damage or inflammation. 5. A patient with a white blood cell (WBC) count of 15,000/mm³ likely has: A. Leukopenia B. Leukocytosis C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Polycythemia Answer : B Rationale : Normal WBC count ranges from 4,500 to 11,000/mm³. A count of 15,000/mm³ indicates leukocytosis, often due to infection or inflammation.
6. Which urine test is most appropriate for detecting a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A. Urine specific gravity B. Urine culture and sensitivity C. 24-hour urine collection D. Urine osmolality Answer : B Rationale : A urine culture and sensitivity test identifies the presence of bacteria and determines the most effective antibiotic for treatment. 7. The presence of ketones in urine is most commonly associated with: A. Dehydration B. Urinary tract infection C. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus D. Liver cirrhosis Answer : C Rationale : Ketones in urine are a byproduct of fat metabolism and are commonly found in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. 8. A positive fecal occult blood test (FOBT) may indicate: A. Hemorrhoids B. Colorectal cancer C. Peptic ulcer disease D. All of the above Answer : D Rationale : A positive FOBT can result from bleeding anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, including conditions like hemorrhoids, colorectal cancer, and peptic ulcer disease. 9. Which imaging study uses magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the body? A. Computed tomography (CT) scan B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C. Ultrasound D. X-ray Answer : B Rationale : MRI utilizes magnetic fields and radio waves to produce detailed images of organs and tissues.
Answer : C Rationale : Hemoglobin A1c reflects the average blood glucose levels over the previous 2-3 months, aiding in diabetes management.
15. Elevated levels of troponin in the blood are indicative of: A. Liver failure B. Myocardial infarction C. Renal insufficiency D. Pulmonary embolism Answer : B Rationale : Troponin is a cardiac enzyme released during myocardial injury, such as a heart attack. **16. Which test is used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy Sources 4o You said: Could you provide more questions? ChatGPT said: ChatGPT Certainly! Below is an expanded set of NCLEX-style questions for Chapter 34: Diagnostic Testing, continuing from where we left off. These questions follow the same format, focusing on key learning objectives, including lab tests, imaging, and nursing responsibilities. 17. Which test is the most specific indicator of myocardial damage? A. Creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB) B. Troponin I C. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) D. Myoglobin Answer : B Rationale : Troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle injury and remains elevated for several days after a myocardial infarction. 18. A patient’s urinalysis reveals the presence of protein. What is the most likely cause? A. Dehydration B. Kidney damage C. Urinary tract infection D. Low dietary protein intake Answer : B Rationale : Protein in urine (proteinuria) is often a sign of kidney damage, such as in nephrotic syndrome or glomerulonephritis. 19. What is the primary purpose of a 24-hour urine collection?
A. Detecting urinary tract infections B. Measuring renal function and hormone levels C. Diagnosing dehydration D. Checking for occult blood Answer : B Rationale : A 24-hour urine collection provides a comprehensive assessment of kidney function and measures substances such as creatinine and cortisol.
20. Which stool characteristic is most indicative of an upper gastrointestinal bleed? A. Bright red blood B. Black, tarry stools C. Pale, clay-colored stools D. Mucus in stool Answer : B Rationale : Black, tarry stools (melena) indicate the presence of digested blood from an upper gastrointestinal bleed. 21. When preparing a patient for a chest X-ray, the nurse should instruct the patient to: A. Avoid eating or drinking for 6 hours prior. B. Remove all metal objects, including jewelry. C. Take a deep breath and exhale during the scan. D. Drink contrast dye 30 minutes before the procedure. Answer : B Rationale : Metal objects can interfere with the X-ray image, so they must be removed before the procedure. 22. A patient undergoing an abdominal ultrasound should be instructed to: A. Avoid eating or drinking for 8 hours before the test. B. Take a laxative the night before the procedure. C. Empty the bladder before the test. D. Increase fluid intake immediately before the procedure. Answer : A Rationale : Fasting ensures the abdominal structures are visualized clearly without interference from food or gas. 23. What is the primary nursing responsibility when collecting a stool sample for ova and parasites? A. Ensure the sample is refrigerated immediately. B. Use a sterile container for collection. C. Transport the sample to the lab while warm. D. Collect the first stool of the day.
A. WBC count of 2,000/mm³ B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³ C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL D. Serum potassium of 4.2 mEq/L Answer : A Rationale : A WBC count below 4,500/mm³ (leukopenia) increases the risk of infection and is a common complication of chemotherapy.
29. After collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity, the nurse should: A. Refrigerate the specimen immediately. B. Send the specimen to the lab within 2 hours. C. Store the specimen at room temperature for 4 hours. D. Mix the sample with a preservative. Answer : B Rationale : Urine specimens for culture must be transported to the lab promptly to ensure accurate results. 30. Which finding is considered a critical value for serum potassium? A. 3.8 mEq/L B. 4.5 mEq/L C. 2.9 mEq/L D. 5.0 mEq/L Answer : C Rationale : A serum potassium level below 3.5 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. 31. What is the priority nursing action after obtaining a blood sample for arterial blood gases (ABG)? A. Refrigerate the blood sample. B. Apply pressure to the puncture site for at least 5 minutes. C. Send the sample to the lab within 1 hour. D. Ensure the patient is in a supine position. Answer : B Rationale : Applying pressure to the puncture site reduces the risk of hematoma or bleeding, especially since arterial blood is under higher pressure. 32. Which test evaluates the efficiency of the lungs in oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange? A. Pulmonary function test (PFT) B. Chest X-ray C. Arterial blood gases (ABG) D. 4o You said: from chapter 34
ChatGPT said: ChatGPT Here’s an expanded set of NCLEX-style questions specifically aligned with Chapter 34: Diagnostic Testing from Fundamentals of Nursing Active Learning for Collaboration Practice (3rd Edition).
31. When preparing a patient for a colonoscopy, which action is most important? A. Ensure the patient has been on a clear liquid diet for 24 hours. B. Administer a sedative before the procedure. C. Restrict fluid intake on the day of the procedure. D. Provide a high-fiber diet before the procedure. Answer : A Rationale : A clear liquid diet for 24 hours helps ensure the bowel is free of solid contents, improving visualization during the procedure. 32. Which test measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy? A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. International normalized ratio (INR) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) D. Bleeding time Answer : C Rationale : aPTT is used to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. 33. What is the primary purpose of a lumbar puncture? A. Evaluate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) B. Administer medications directly into the spinal cord C. Diagnose blood disorders D. Measure intracranial pressure Answer : A Rationale : A lumbar puncture is performed to collect CSF for diagnostic purposes, such as evaluating for infections or neurologic conditions. 34. After obtaining a sputum specimen for culture, the nurse should: A. Refrigerate the specimen immediately. B. Transport the specimen to the lab promptly. C. Mix the sample with a preservative. D. Allow the sample to sit at room temperature for 2 hours. Answer : B Rationale : Sputum specimens should be transported to the lab promptly to ensure accurate culture results. 35. Which diagnostic test requires the patient to be assessed for shellfish or iodine allergies beforehand?
40. Which lab value would the nurse interpret as abnormal? A. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL B. Platelet count 200,000/mm³ C. WBC count 3,000/mm³ D. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L Answer : C Rationale : A WBC count <4,500/mm³ indicates leukopenia, which may increase susceptibility to infections. 41. Which intervention is most important after a barium enema? A. Monitor the patient for rectal bleeding. B. Encourage the patient to increase fluid intake. C. Assess for signs of infection. D. Keep the patient on bed rest for 12 hours. Answer : B Rationale : Increased fluids help to expel the barium from the bowel and prevent constipation. 42. When collecting a stool specimen for occult blood, the nurse should instruct the patient to: A. Avoid eating red meat for 48 hours before the test. B. Provide the first stool sample of the day. C. Refrigerate the sample immediately after collection. D. Mix the sample with a preservative. Answer : A Rationale : Red meat can cause false-positive results in fecal occult blood tests. 43. A nurse is educating a patient about blood glucose testing. Which statement indicates the patient understands the procedure? A. "I should wipe away the first drop of blood." B. "I will use my thumb for the puncture site." C. "I need to fast for 12 hours before testing." D. "I will prick the same finger every time." Answer : A Rationale : Wiping away the first drop ensures accurate glucose readings by removing tissue fluid. 44. Which diagnostic test evaluates kidney function by measuring the rate of creatinine clearance? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B. Serum creatinine C. 24-hour urine collection D. Complete metabolic panel (CMP)
Answer : C Rationale : A 24-hour urine collection measures creatinine clearance, providing a direct assessment of kidney function.
45. A positive Mantoux tuberculin skin test indicates: A. Active tuberculosis B. Prior exposure to tuberculosis C. Immunity to tuberculosis D. Allergic reaction to the tuberculin protein Answer : B Rationale : A positive test indicates prior exposure to TB but does not differentiate between latent and active infection. These questions can continue up to 50 total , fully covering lab tests, imaging, patient preparation, and post-procedure care. Let me know if you'd like a document with all 50 questions for easier review! 4o You said: continue up to 50 ChatGPT said: ChatGPT Here’s the continuation of NCLEX-style questions for Chapter 34, bringing the total to 50 questions: 46. A patient’s lab results show an INR of 4.0. The nurse recognizes this finding indicates: A. Normal coagulation B. Therapeutic range for anticoagulants C. Increased risk of bleeding D. Clot formation Answer : C Rationale : An INR of 4.0 indicates an elevated risk of bleeding, as the normal therapeutic range for anticoagulants is 2.0-3.0. 47. Before collecting an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample, the nurse performs an Allen test to: A. Determine the oxygenation of the blood. B. Ensure adequate collateral circulation in the hand. C. Assess the patient's ability to tolerate arterial puncture. D. Check for infection at the puncture site. Answer : B Rationale : The Allen test ensures sufficient blood flow through the ulnar artery to maintain hand circulation if the radial artery is punctured. 48. A patient scheduled for a gallbladder ultrasound asks what preparation is required. The nurse’s best response is:
