Chapter 11: The Cell Cycle - Certified Exam Study Guide, Exams of Nursing

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1. A parent cell divides to form two genetically identical daughter cells in the process of mitosis. For mitosis to take place A) the parent cell must first be fertilized. B) the parent cell must replicate its entire genome prior to mitosis. C) the parent cell must reproduce its DNA during telophase. D) the parent cell must divide its DNA in half so each daughter cell gets only the genes needed to carry out its functions. In this way, differentiation occurs. Answer: B Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

2. One reason cancer cells are easier to culture than normal cells extracted from an organism is that A) cancer cells do not need to adhere to a substratum to grow. B) nutrient requirements for cancer cells are precisely defined. C) cancer cells are better models for demonstrating what happens in an intact organism. D) cancer cells grow in a more regulated fashion. Answer: A Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-4. Explain the consequences of uncontrolled cell division.

3. DNA is composed of four nucleosides: adenosine, cytidine, thymidine, and guanosine. If scientists introduced radioactive thymidine into the growth medium of the cells, it would be incorporated into the DNA molecule A) at any point in the cell cycle. B) when centromeres split so the two chromosomes can be separated. C) during DNA replication. D) as the cell enters G1 of interphase. Answer: C Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Remembering LOs: Chp11-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

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7. The first gap in the cell cycle (G1) corresponds to A) normal growth and functioning. B) the phase in which DNA is being replicated. C) the beginning of mitosis. D) the phase between DNA replication and the M phase. Answer: A Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-1. Explain the four phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle.

8. The microtubular organizing center found in animal cells is an identifiable structure present during all phases of the cell cycle. Specifically, it is known as which of the following? A) cell plate B) centrosome C) centromere D) kinetochore Answer: B Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

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9. Based on structures present in the figure above, this cell is in which substage of interphase? A) S phase B) G1 phase C) G0 phase

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D) G2 phase Answer: D Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Remembering

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Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

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14. Metaphase occurs prior to the splitting of centromeres. It is characterized by A) aligning of chromosomes on the equator. B) duplication of centrioles. C) cytokinesis. D) disassembly of the nuclear envelope. Answer: A Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

15. How might spindle microtubules assist in the process of splitting centromeres? A) the use of motor proteins to split the centromere at specific arginine residues B) creating tension by pulling toward opposite poles C) coding for enzymes involved in the process D) phosphorylating the centromere, which changes its conformation Answer: B Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

16. Mitosis is the process of chromosome separation. Cytoplasm is divided between the two daughter cells in a process known as A) karyokinesis. B) cytokinesis. C) S phase. D) G1 phase. Answer: B Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

17. Some cells have several nuclei per cell. How might such multinucleated cells arise? A) repeated cytokinesis with no mitosis B) repeated mitosis with concomitant cytokinesis C) repeated mitosis without cytokinesis D) multiple S phases before the entry of a cell into mitosis Answer: C Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

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D) cloning. Answer: D Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering

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22. FtsZ is a bacterial cytoskeletal protein. It forms a contractile ring involved in bacterial cytokinesis. Its function is analogous to A) the cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells. B) the cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells. C) the mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells. D) the microtubular organizing center of eukaryotic cells. Answer: A Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

23. Once researchers understood that chromosomes are moved by the spindle microtubules, the next question they wanted to answer is how the microtubules function to bring about this process. They used fluorescent labels to make the chromosomes and the microtubular structures fluoresce. When anaphase began (centromeres split), they photobleached a section of microtubules. As chromosomes moved toward the poles of the daughter cells, the photobleached sections of the microtubules remained stationary. This result suggests that A) the microtubules elongate and shorten at the centrosome end. B) the microtubules overlap and slide with respect to each other, effectively shortening the microtubules without depolymerizing the actual fiber. C) the microtubules elongate and shorten at their kinetochore end. D) the microtubules are of constant length; centrosomes move farther apart to separate chromosomes. Answer: C Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

24. In the process of chromosome separation, how do microtubules maintain contact with the kinetochores and shorten at the same time? A) Motor proteins move chromosomes down the microtubular structures of the mitotic spindle. B) Actin microfilaments cause the microtubular proteins to slide past each other. C) The centrosomes move apart, so the microtubular proteins do not need to shorten. D) The centrosomes cause the shortening and depolymerization of the microtubular proteins. Answer: A Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.

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LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

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29. Once a cell completes mitosis, molecular division triggers must be turned off. What happens to MPF during mitosis? A) It is completely degraded. B) The cyclin-dependent kinases take on a function unrelated to mitosis. C) Cyclin is degraded; the concentration of cyclin-dependent kinase remains unchanged, but without cyclin, MPF is not formed. D) Cyclin-dependent kinase is degraded; cyclin concentration remains constant, but without cyclin-dependent kinase, MPF is not formed. Answer: C Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

30. Which of the following is not an effect of mitosis-promoting factor (MPF) involved in moving a cell into M phase? A) phosphorylation of lamins, initiating breakdown of the nuclear membrane B) phosphorylation of microtubule associated proteins, triggering the formation of the mitotic spindle C) phosphorylation of an enzyme that breaks down the cyclin molecule D) degradation of cyclin-dependent kinase Answer: D Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

31. The M-phase checkpoint is designed to make sure all chromosomes are attached to the mitotic spindle. If this fails to happen, in which stage of mitosis would the cells be most likely to arrest? A) telophase B) prophase C) prometaphase D) metaphase Answer: D Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

32. If a cell has accumulated DNA damage, it is unlikely to A) pass the G2 checkpoint. B) activate DNA repair mechanisms. C) enter G1 from mitosis. D) synthesize cyclin-dependent kinases.

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33. Regulatory proteins that serve to prevent a cell from entering the S phase under conditions of DNA damage are also known as A) cyclins. B) cyclin-dependent kinases. C) antibodies. D) tumor suppressors. Answer: D Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

34. Exposure of zebrafish nuclei to meiotic cytosol resulted in phosphorylation of NEP55 and L68 proteins by cyclin-dependent kinase 2. NEP55 is a protein of the inner nuclear membrane, and L68 is a protein of the nuclear lamina. What is the most likely role of phosphorylation of these proteins in the process of mitosis? A) They enable the attachment of the spindle microtubules to kinetochore regions of the centromere. B) They are involved in the disassembly and dispersal of the nucleolus. C) They are involved in the disassembly of the nuclear envelope. D) They assist in the movement of the centrosomes to opposite sides of the nucleus. Answer: C Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Comprehension/Applying LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

35. Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the eukaryotic cell cycle? A) hormones B) cyclins C) cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) D) p E) ribosomes Answer: E Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

36. For cells to divide more rapidly, increased production would likely be required of each of the following proteins EXCEPT A) p53. B) cyclins. C) activated MPF. D) PDGF. Answer: A Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

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37. The term contact inhibition refers to the A) exchange of signals between cells using cell surface receptions. B) cessation of cell growth when two cells touch each other. C) action of non-competitive inhibitors on the catalytic activity of enzymes. Answer: B Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-3. Understand the various ways the cell cycle is controlled.

38. Cancer-causing mutated tumour suppressor genes result from which of the following? A) programmed cell death B) mutations in genes encoding proteins that normally inhibit progression through the cell cycle C) mutations that cause overexpression of genes encoding proteins that normally stimulate progression through the cell cycle D) cell-contact inhibition Answer: B Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-4. Explain the consequences of uncontrolled cell division.

39. Which of the following is NOT a result of mitosis? A) in fungi, haploid spores are produced from a diploid zygote B) germination of a new plant from a seed C) asexual reproduction of haploid yeast cells D) regeneration of a zebrafish fin E) all of the above are examples where mitosis occurs Answer: A Reference: Section 11. Bloom's Level: Remembering LOs: Chp11-2. Explain the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis.