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Clinical pharmacy - Test 1, Exams of Pharmacy

All Multiple Choice Questions Without Solutions.

Typology: Exams

2021/2022

Uploaded on 02/24/2022

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Test 1
Questions
Questions 1–6
Directions: Each group of questions below consists of five lettered
headings followed by a list of numbered questions. For each
numbered question select the one heading that is most closely
related to it. Each heading may be used once, morethan once,
or not at all.
Questions 1–3 concern the following:
AMCHC
Blymphocytes
CHbA1c
DINR
Ethrombocytes
Select, from A
Ato E
E, which one of the above:
Q1 may be decreased in iron deficiency anaemia
Q2 may have an increased value in viral infections
Q3 may have a decreased value in idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
MCQs in Clinical Pharmacy ISBN 978 0 85369 666 7
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Test 1

Questions

Questions 1–

Directions: Each group of questions below consists of five lettered

headings followed by a list of numbered questions. For each

numbered question select the one heading that is most closely

related to it. Each heading may be used once, more than once,

or not at all.

Questions 1–3 concern the following:

A o MCHC

B o lymphocytes

C o HbA1c

D o INR

E o thrombocytes

Select, from AA to EE, which one of the above:

Q1 may be decreased in iron deficiency anaemia

Q2 may have an increased value in viral infections

Q3 may have a decreased value in idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura

Questions 4–6 concern the following:

A o tachypnoea

B o hypoxia

C o afterload

D o myopathy

E o dysphasia

Select, from AA to EE, which one of the above is manifested by:

Q4 muscle weakness and muscle wasting

Q5 rapid rate of breathing

Q6 an impairment of the language aspect of speech

Questions 7–

Directions: For each of the questions below, ONE or MORE of the

responses is (are) correct. Decide which of the responses is

(are) correct. Then choose:

A o if 1, 2 and 3 are correct

B o if 1 and 2 only are correct

C o if 2 and 3 only are correct

D o if 1 only is correct

E o if 3 only is correct

2 Test 1: Questions

Directions summarised A B C D E 1, 2, 3 1, 2 only 2, 3 only 1 only 3 only

Q13 Creatinine clearance:

1 o is an index used to measure glomerular filtration rate

2 o measurement involves a 24-hour urine collection

3 o measurement requires 24-hour monitoring of plasma

creatinine

Q14 Patients receiving isosorbide dinitrate should be advised that:

1 o occurrence of headaches tends to decrease with continued

therapy

2 o tablets should be discarded 8 weeks after opening the

container

3 o tablets should be stored in glass containers

Q15 Adrenaline:

1 o is used in cardiac arrest

2 o administration requires monitoring of blood pressure

3 o results in a fall in blood pressure

Q16 Methadone:

1 o requires multiple dosing in a day

2 o is addictive

3 o is an opioid agonist

Q17 Patients receiving tamoxifen should be advised:

1 o that hot flushes may occur

2 o that menstrual irregularities may occur

3 o to report sudden breathlessness and any pain in the calf

Q18 Parenteral sodium bicarbonate:

1 o raises blood pH

2 o is indicated in metabolic acidosis

3 o may be used in hypomagnesaemia

4 Test 1: Questions

Q19 Phytomenadione:

1 o is a lipid-soluble analogue of vitamin K

2 o promotes hepatic synthesis of active prothrombin

3 o is indicated in babies at birth to prevent vitamin K deficiency

bleeding

Q20 Enoxaparin:

1 o cannot be used at the same dose as heparin

2 o thrombocytopenia may occur with its use

3 o agents that affect haemostasis should be used with care

Q21 Patients receiving oral isotretinoin should be advised:

1 o to avoid pregnancy

2 o to avoid wax epilation during treatment

3 o to use a lip balm regularly

Q22 A patient who will be undergoing a colonoscopy is advised to:

1 o use a topical haemorrhoid preparation before admission

2 o take a bowel cleansing preparation

3 o avoid solid food on previous day

Q23 In which of the following cases is referral recommended:

1 o a paediatric patient with a history of asthma who presents

with a chest infection

2 o a patient receiving diuretics who presents with symptoms of

a heat stroke

3 o a tourist who presents with acute diarrhoea

Questions 7–26 5

Q27 Signs and symptoms of pulmonary oedema include:

1 o weight loss

2 o dyspnoea

3 o cough

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q28 Precipitants of acute pulmonary oedema include:

1 o hypothyroidism

2 o excessive infusion rate

3 o heart failure

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q29 Parameters that are monitored during metolazone therapy include:

1 o body weight

2 o electrolytes

3 o LFTs

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Questions 27–80 7

Q30 Metolazone and bumetanide:

A o reduce the blood volume

B o produce a euphoric state

C o cause sedation

D o control bronchospasm

E o prevent embolisation

Q31 When PS is stabilised, the therapeutic plan should consider:

1 o stopping metolazone treatment

2 o changing bumetanide to an oral formulation

3 o starting co-amoxiclav

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Questions 32–38 involve the following case:

8 Test 1: Questions

CA is a 77-year-old patient who is admitted to hospital with infected multiple sores and who is complaining of polyuria and weakness. CA presented with reduced skin turgor, dehydration, tremor and in a confused state. CA has a past medical history of diabetes. Her general practitioner has started her the day before on ciprofloxacin 250 mg bd and fusidic acid cream bd. Diabetes was managed through dietary control and CA was not taking antidiabetic drugs. On admission, CA is started on: glibenclamide 2.5 mg daily ciprofloxacin 500 mg bd sodium chloride 0.9% iv infusion haloperidol 0.5 mg bd On admission: random blood glucose level 12 mmol/l blood pressure 125/78 mmHg

Q35 Pharmacist intervention with regards to therapy started on admission

includes:

1 o increase dose of ciprofloxacin

2 o review sodium chloride infusion

3 o rationale for haloperidol treatment

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q36 As regards glibenclamide therapy:

A o gliclazide is preferred in this patient

B o the dose could be increased to 10 mg daily

C o the drug is administered in the afternoon

D o the drug reduces insulin secretion

E o it restores beta-cell activity

Q37 When the patient is discharged, advice includes:

1 o consuming small, frequent regular meals

2 o taking glibenclamide regularly

3 o using fusidic acid cream daily

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

10 Test 1: Questions

Q38 Onset of hypoglycaemia in CA could be precipated by:

1 o missed doses of glibenclamide

2 o excess dietary intake

3 o skipped meals

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Questions 39–41 involve the following case:

Q39 Symptoms that could occur due to promethazine overdose include:

1 o drowsiness

2 o headache

3 o blurred vision

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Questions 27–80 11

BD is a 34-year-old patient admitted with an overdose of promethazine and alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Patient has a history of alcohol abuse.

Q43 Side-effects to be expected with simvastatin include:

1 o headache

2 o nausea

3 o abdominal pain

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q44 Recommendations made to MB include:

1 o follow moderate exercise

2 o adopt a low-fat diet

3 o take atenolol 2 h before simvastatin

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Questions 45–47 involve the following case:

Questions 27–80 13

GD is a 72-year-old female whose current medication is: aspirin 75 mg daily dipyridamole 100 mg tds timotol 0.5% both eyes 2 drops bd lactulose 20 ml daily

Q45 Dipyridamole:

1 o cannot be used in combination with low-dose aspirin

2 o is used for prophylaxis of thromboembolism

3 o may cause increased bleeding during or after surgery

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q46 Lactulose:

1 o dose needs to be reviewed as the maximum adult daily dose

is 5 ml

2 o should not be used for more than 5 days

3 o is used to maintain bowel evacuation

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q47 GD is receiving medications for:

1 o glaucoma

2 o diarrhoea

3 o osteoporosis

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

14 Test 1: Questions

Q50 Monitoring required because of spironolactone treatment involves:

1 o serum creatinine

2 o serum potassium

3 o thyroid function

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q51 Losartan:

1 o is an angiotensin-II receptor antagonist

2 o exhibits a lower incidence of cough as a side-effect

compared with enalapril

3 o dose may be increased to 50 mg daily

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q52 Digoxin is used in patients with heart failure:

1 o because it decreases myocardial intracellular ionic calcium

2 o when there is atrial fibrillation

3 o because it exerts a positive inotropic effect

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

16 Test 1: Questions

Q53 Parameters to be monitored when digoxin therapy is started:

1 o plasma digoxin concentration

2 o plasma potassium measurement

3 o plasma sodium measurement

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Questions 54–57 involve the following case:

Q54 The likely diagnosis for LB is:

A o prickly heat

B o herpes zoster infection

C o herpes labialis infection

D o cytomegalovirus infection

E o hepatitis B infection

Q55 Patient should be advised:

1 o to take doses at regular intervals

2 o to avoid exposure to sunlight

3 o to wash hands thoroughly after drug administration

Questions 27–80 17

LB is a 55-year-old male patient who developed vesicles unilaterally around his waist. LB complained of a stabbing irritation in the area. LB is prescribed aciclovir 800 mg five times daily for 5 days.

Questions 58–63 involve the following case:

Q58 Penicillin G is:

A o phenoxymethylpenicillin

B o benzylpenicillin

C o penicillin V

D o piperacillin

E o pivmecillinam

Q59 Penicillin G is available in 600 mg vials. How many vials are required

for each dose?

A o 0.

B o 1

C o 2

D o 3

E o 30

Q60 Penicillin G:

1 o is bacteriostatic

2 o is bactericidal

3 o can be given as an intramuscular injection

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Questions 27–80 19

AD is a 39-year-old female with bacterial endocarditis. She is started on gentamicin 80 mg iv twice daily and penicillin G iv 1.8 g every 6 h.

Q61 Gentamicin:

1 o has a broad spectrum of activity

2 o is contraindicated in hepatic impairment

3 o therapy may be changed to oral administration when the

patient is stabilised

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q62 A possible reason for these symptoms is:

1 o allergy to gentamicin

2 o allergy to penicillin G

3 o development of heat rash

A o 1, 2, 3

B o 1, 2 only

C o 2, 3 only

D o 1 only

E o 3 only

Q63 Manifestations of bacterial endocarditis include:

1 o prolonged fever

2 o embolic phenomena

3 o renal failure

20 Test 1: Questions

Patient developed a rash and started complaining of generalised itch after the administration of the drugs.