CNPR-NAPSR question and answers 100% correct (chapters 1-22) | Exams Nursing

Quiz 1 Chapter 1

1. The high price of healthcare is explained by the high prices of medicines. False

2. Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product. True

3. Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads

prove disappointing. True

4. The U.S. accounts for about 50% of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues.

5. Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry?

Population growth and increased life expectancies

6. According to your manual which statement accurately describes the predicted

relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities?

Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove

immediately profitable.

7. Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare

providers. False

8. One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC

advertising. False

9. Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions? The U.S., Western

Europe, and Japan

10. What influences the number of districts in a region? The region’s population

11. What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery system? California and

Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies.

12. The heart of the pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Managers. False

13. Most DMs did not start as representatives. False

14. How many territories are in a typical district? 8 to 12

15. What is the most effective method for grabbing market share? Comparative selling

Quiz 2 Chapter 2 and 3

1. Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies. False

2. It usually only takes 1-2 calls to a physicians before he or she commits to prescribing

your product. False

3. The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed. True

4. According to Chapter 2 of your manual, which of the following would classify as payers?

Employers

5. According to your manual, what defines ethical pharmaceutical companies? Researching

and developing novel drugs

6. One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued

investment in the R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development. True

7. Thanks to the modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV

expected to live? Another 50 years

8. How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890? Almost 30 years

9. What is a treatment group? A group of patients assigned to receive a specified

treatment

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Quiz 1 Chapter 1

The high price of healthcare is explained by the high prices of medicines. False
Pharmaceuticals are arguably the most socially important healthcare product. True
Pharmaceutical development is a high-risk undertaking, in which many promising leads prove disappointing. True
The U.S. accounts for about 50% of the world’s pharmaceutical revenues.
Which of the following has fueled recent growth in the pharmaceutical industry? Population growth and increased life expectancies
According to your manual which statement accurately describes the predicted relationship between pharmaceutical companies and genomic research facilities? Partnerships between pharmaceutical companies and genomic companies will not prove immediately profitable.
Prescription drug therapy is not cost-effective for insurance companies and healthcare providers. False
One of the oldest and least effective pharmaceutical marketing techniques is DTC advertising. False
Pharmaceutical sales are highest in which geographical regions? The U.S., Western Europe, and Japan
What influences the number of districts in a region? The region’s population
What is an example of the regionalization of healthcare delivery system? California and Florida have different prescription reimbursement policies.
The heart of the pharmaceutical sales team is the Regional Managers. False
Most DMs did not start as representatives. False
How many territories are in a typical district? 8 to 12
What is the most effective method for grabbing market share? Comparative selling Quiz 2 Chapter 2 and 3
Pharmaceutical reps mainly visit pharmacies. False
It usually only takes 1 - 2 calls to a physicians before he or she commits to prescribing your product. False
The pharmacist may dispense a product other than what the physician prescribed. True
According to Chapter 2 of your manual, which of the following would classify as payers? Employers
According to your manual, what defines ethical pharmaceutical companies? Researching and developing novel drugs
One of the most disappointing results of the pharmaceutical industry’s continued investment in the R & D is the few new drugs being approved and in development. True
Thanks to the modern medicines, how long are people newly diagnosed with HIV expected to live? Another 50 years
How much has the average American lifespan increased since 1890? Almost 30 years
What is a treatment group? A group of patients assigned to receive a specified treatment

What is the main difference between a blinded and double-blinded study? In a double blind study, neither the study staff nor the study participants know which subjects are in the experimental group and which in the control.
What does asymptomatic mean? Not exhibiting signs or symptoms Quiz 3 Chapter 4
Which term denotes the study of bodily functions (as opposed to structures)?
In its broadest definition, a drug is any substance that produces a physical or psychological change in the body. True
How does the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA) define a drug? Ant substance intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease, or a substance other than food intended to affect the structure or function of the body.
Which statement about vitamins is correct? Most of the body’s required vitamins must be taken in from outside the body.
ADME testing measures the rate at which the body absorbs the drug, distributes it to the organ necessary to produce the desired effect, metabolizes it into waste material and then excretes it from the body. True
ADME testing is primarily used in what field? Pharmacokinetics
Which statement about placebos is correct? Placebo effects can lead to withdrawal systems.
ON average, only about 5 of 4,000 drugs studied in the laboratory are eventually studied in people. True
Which statement is true about drugs taken sublingually? Sublingual drugs are absorbed directly and almost immediately into the bloodstream.
What are 3 of the 7 rights of drug administration? The right patient, the right drug, and the right dose
Pro-drugs are administered in active form. Which is metabolized into an inactive form, False
The kidney of an 85 - year-old person excretes drugs only around 50% as efficiently as that of a 35-year-old person.
The normal age-related decrease in kidney function can help doctors determine an appropriate dosage based solely on a person’s age. True
What differentiates a caplet from a tablet? Caplets are shaped like capsules and have film coatings to aid in swallowing.
Where will you find the legend “Caution: Federal Law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”? on the label of all prescription drugs
What happen in slow acetylators? Drugs that are metabolized by N-acetyl transferase rend to reach higher blood levels and remain in the body longer. Quiz 4 Chapter 4
About 50% of the people in the U.S. are slow acetylators.
Which of the following statements about drug-drug interactions is incorrect? Drug-drug interactions are always harmful

Which of the following is not a main concept in clinical pharmacology? Pharmacoprocesses
Which of the following is not a route of drug administration? Transfugal
How are intradermal drugs delivered? By injection under the skin
What is an example of intravenous drug delivery? An injection of anesthetic directly into the bloodstream
What are the major organs of the gastrointestinal system? The mouth, esophagus, stomach, liver, pancreas, gallbladder, small and large intestines Quiz 6 Chapter 5 and 6
Who is normally responsible for selling to distributors? NAMs
How often do secondary drug wholesale distributors buy their drugs directly from the manufactures? Sometimes
By FDA law, large chain pharmacies are not allowed to buy directly from drug manufactures. False
Only 3 companies account for nearly 90% of all drug wholesale sales. True
What type of sale bypasses the need for intermediary distributors? Manufacturer-direct sales
What is a group purchasing organization (GPO)? An entity consisting of two or more hospitals or other health care entities that negotiates contracts on behalf of its members
Prescription dispensed by mail-order pharmacies are, on average, around 3 times larger than those dispensed by retail pharmacies.
Which of the following is not a type of non-stock-sale? All of these are examples of non- stock sales
What is another term for rebates? After-market arrangements
The PDMA is the Prescription Drug Manufactures Association. False
A company that owns and operates three or fewer pharmacies is an independent drug store.
Which section of a drug’s package insert information covers the usual dosage range? Indications and usage
Drug labels must include indications, usage information, and contraindications. True
What should be included in the description section of a drug’s package insert information? The drug’s proprietary name and the established name. Quiz 7 Chapter 7
Exclusivity gives exclusive marketing rights, is granted by the FDA, and can run concurrently with a patent or not.
What differentiates exclusivity from a patent? Exclusivity is only granted upon the drug’s FDA approval.
What is required of an invention for it to be worthy of patent protection? It must be novel, useful, and not obvious.
A generic drug is the bioequivalent to the originator brand-name drug in dosage, strength, safety, and quality.

Which of the following is not required by the FDA’s Criteria for Equivalency? The drugs contain identical amounts of the same inactive ingredients.
What list is generally considered the most reliable source of information on therapeutically equivalent drug products? “Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence”
Which of the following is an orange book rating? B
What is the term for chemical equivalents which, when administered in the same amounts, will provide the same biological or physiological availability as measured by blood and urine levels? Biological equivalents
What term denotes a drug that is identical or bioequivalent to the originator brand- name in dosage for, safety, strength, route, quality, performance, characteristics, and intended use? Generic
What term denotes the dispensing of an unbranded generic product for the product prescribed? Generic substitution
What is the duration of a patent challenge? 180 days Quiz 8 Chapter 8
How is a drug sample closet or cabinet like a grocery store shelf? The more visibility you can give your drug, the more likely that it will be prescribed.
Pharmaceutical representatives do not typically store and secure their own drug samples. False
Sampling is sometimes the most important factor in a pharmaceutical rep’s success. True
The FDA approves storage conditions for drug products. True
Pharmaceutical representatives must always record the amount of drug samples left and obtain a signature for that amount. True
What is prohibited by section 503 of the federal food, drug and cosmetic act, as amended by the prescription drug marketing act? The sale, purchase, or trade or offer to sell, purchase, or trade prescription drug samples
The federal government does not regulate the drug sampling for a Pharmaceutical representative. False
Which of the following is permitted by section 503 of the federal food, drug and cosmetic act? None of these
Which entity issues monographs that define how drugs should be stored, and what variance is allowed in their stated contents? United states Pharmacopoeial convention
Storage conditions for drug products are based on information supplied by the manufacture. True
Medications are usually unaffected by changes in temperature, light, humidity, and other environmental factors. False
In which cases can degraded drugs sometimes still be used? When the amount of remaining drug has not fallen lower than 85 - 90% of that stated on the label
Drug recalls are alsmost always negotiated with the FDA beforehand.
Which problem would not be improved by electronic prescribing systems? None of these
What should you do if you receive a shipment form your employer and you notice there are twice as many samples as what is posted on the packing slip? Call your sales

transdermally? The entire dose is available in the bloodstream to be distributed

to the target site.

10. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues?

All of these factors affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues.

11. Which of these medical terms means “to apply the drug on the skin surface”?

transdermal

12. Carcinogenicity studies are carried out to identify the tumor-causing potential of

a drug. TRUE

Quiz 11 Chapter 11

1. According to NIH ethical guidelines, which of the following is the most important

criteria in selecting subjects for clinical studies? scientific objectives

2. Which statement about the IRB is INCORRECT? The members of the IRB/IEC must

be experts in the topic of the study

3. Which phases of clinical studies are open label and which are blinded? Phase I

and IV trials are often open label, but Phase II and III are double-blinded or at

least blinded.

4. If it is not possible to measure the direct effects of a drug, what is used instead?

surrogate markers such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels

5. Which of the following is an observational study that first identifies a group of

subjects with a certain disease and a control group without the disease, and then

looks to back in time (e.g., via chart reviews) to find exposure to risk factors?

case-control study

6. Which measure of central tendency is the sum of all observations divided by the

number of observations? mean

7. Which measurement describes the number of new events that occur during a

specified period of time in a population at risk for the event (e.g., lung infections

per year)? incidence

8. Which of the following measures is used to describe the variability of the

population mean? standard error of the mean

9. Which of the following terms denotes the extent to which a test actually

measures what it is supposed to be measuring, or what we think it is measuring?

validity

10. What are the Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards analysis?

methods of survival analysis

11. What section of a clinical paper describes subjects' entry and exclusion criteria?

methods

12. Which document sets out how a trial is to be conducted (i.e., the study's general

design and operating features)? protocol

13. When designing and performing clinical trials, several ethical constraints must be

considered. Which of the following is NOT one of these ethical constraints?

geographic variations

Quiz 12 Chapter 12

1. What is one way in which large molecule drugs DIFFER from small molecule

drugs? Large molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in

biological systems such as living cells.

2. Which of the following statements about vaccines is INCORRECT? Vaccines are

types of small molecule drugs.

3. What is an advantage of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines?

Attenuated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.

4. How are toxoids derived? from the toxins secreted by a pathogen

5. What is the estimated annual death toll for malaria? 1.5 to 3.5 million people

6. There are more white blood cells than red blood cells for the same volume in the

human body. FALSE

7. How was insulin primarily obtained from the 1930s to the 1980s? porcine and

bovine extracts

8. Which of the following are NOT types of cytokines? All of these are types of

cytokines.

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of hormones? blood glucose

10. Which of the following is a basic gene therapy technique? in vitro, in which

patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in

vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies

11. Which statement about stem cells is CORRECT? Pluripotent stem cells can

develop into many cell types, but not a new individual.

12. Leukemia is a condition in which the stem cells in the bone marrow malfunction

and produce an excessive number of immature white blood cells. TRUE

13. Which of the following are types of vectors used in gene therapy? retroviruses

14. Which of the following is NOT a type of stem cell? pluripotent

15. Traditional vaccines are prepared in a number of ways. Which of the following is

NOT one of them? insulin

Quiz 13 Chapter 13

1 Effective drug therapy is a cost-effective and highly valuable means of controlling total

healthcare expenditures and improving quality of life. TRUE

2 Drug utilization review (DUR) programs have traditionally been used to ensure the

appropriate, safe, and effective use of prescription drugs, but are increasingly shifting

their focus to minimizing costs.

3 DUR programs involve retrospective monitoring of physicians’ prescribing patterns. TRUE

4 A formulary is a list of prescription drugs approved by insurance coverage. TRUE

5 The history of drug formularies in the U.S. extends back to the American Revolution.

FALSE

11. Which of the following would be MOST well-served by mass-market print and TV

ads? a brand that treats a very common chronic condition

Quiz 15 Chapter 16

1. How do companies use prescriber data? to conduct research

2. Under PhRMA Code, which of the following is acceptable? modest meals for staff

members attending educational events

3. Under the AMA Guidelines on Gifts to Physicians from Industry, which gifts are

NOT permitted? gifts that are only given to doctors with high prescribing volumes

4. Under PhRMA Code, which of the following actions by sales reps are permitted?

providing modest meals to staff members attending educational events

5. The PhRMA Code on Interactions with Healthcare Professionals is only voluntary

and not mandatory. TRUE

6. Which of the following would NOT be considered acceptable promotional items

under PhRMA Code? pens and clipboards designed to be used by patients in

doctors' offices

7. Under PhRMA Code, what is one example of an acceptable patient education

item? an anatomical model valued under $

8. Under what circumstances does PhRMA Code permit a company to provide

entertainment or recreational activities to healthcare practitioners?

a. when the activity is intended to facilitate informational exchange

b. when the practitioner is acting as a bone fide advisory board consultant

c. when the practitioner is providing a legitimate service to the company

d. under none of these circumstances

9. Under PhRMA Code, may a company sponsor a lunch at a 3 - day conference if part

of it includes an educational program for which attendees may choose to receive

CME credit? yes, but only if if the lunch is clearly separate from the CME portion

of the conference

10. Which of the following is an arm of the Department of Health and Human

Services that investigates regulatory infractions, provides compliance advice, and

brings enforcement actions? Office of Inspector General

Quiz 16 Chapter 17

1. It is illegal to ask receptionists for personal information about your clients such as

home phone numbers, birthdays, or hobbies. FALSE

2. Which of the following is NOT a primary goal or function of the P&T committee?

to educate sales representatives on legal and ethical guidelines for professional

behavior

3. Which of the following is a major challenge facing family medicine? managed care

policies eroding patient-doctor relationships

4. According to your manual, family physicians diagnose and treat approximately

what proportion of patients they see (as opposed to referring them to

specialists)? 95%

5. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps on the Product Adoption

Continuum?

a. adoption

b. awareness

c. evaluation

d. These are all steps on the continuum.

6. Which of the following would be classified as a type of somatic psychiatric

treatment? drug therapy

7. Why is the last 10 minutes of each hour usually the best time to make office visits

to psychiatrists? Psychiatrist often see patients on the hour for 45 minutes.

8. What is/are an advantage/s of selling to residents? Residents are often more

open-minded.

9. What is drug utilization review (DUR)? an MCO’s practice of monitoring

prescribing patterns

10. Used in the treatment of manic-depressive illness and schizoaffective disorder:

Mood stabilizers

Quiz 17 Chapter

1. What is the focus of the short call protocol?

a. asking a quick yes-or-no question so that you can move to the close

b. beginning with a specific clinical study

c. beginning with a specific patient type

d. just asking for a few more minutes so that you do not need to bother

them again

2. Who is the Medical Science Liaison (MSL)?

a. someone employed by a hospital who coordinates sales

representatives' visits

b. someone employed by a hospital who heads the P&T committee and

manages the formulary

c. someone employed by a pharmaceutical company who builds

relationships with thought leaders and acts as an informational

resources

d. someone employed by a university who coordinates privately funded

clinical studies

3. What type of education do MSLs typically have?

a. bachelor's degrees

b. graduate-level science degrees

b. no data dumping

c. reading the environment

d. your agenda, not theirs

2. Specialty care products are more often prescribed by generalist physicians.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

3. Side effects that might be considered merely minor annoyances in acute

treatment can be a powerful barrier to adoption in chronic therapies.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

4. Acute medications, such as antibiotics, are used to address short-term illnesses or

symptoms.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

5. In some medical cases, a therapy may be initiated by a specialist and monitored

and maintained by a primary care physician.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

6. Blockbuster drug status typically translates into sales of just under $10 million

annually.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

7. A generic drug manufacturer's greatest challenge is often to replicate drug

formulation factors that affect the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic

characteristics of the original drug.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

8. What differentiates an orphan drug from a blockbuster drug?

a. By FDA Law, orphan drugs have been previously rejected by the FDA

b. Orphan drugs are pediatric therapies.

c. Orphan drugs typically generate far more revenue.

d. Orphan drugs typically treat rare conditions.

9. How long are most calls and visits to physicians' offices (excluding waiting and

driving time)?

a. only a few minutes

b. 15 - 30 minutes

c. 30 - 45 minutes

d. about an hour

10. Which of the following is NOT a step in managing rumors?

a. confirm

b. counter attack

c. search

d. transition

11. According to the text, which of the following is considered going to the next level?

a. becoming a micro-thinker

b. meeting the clients' every need

c. minimizing rumors

d. staying focused

12. What is one of the primary job responsibilities of a retail pharmacist?

a. dispensing pharmaceuticals

b. managing formularies

c. manufacturing pharmaceuticals

d. prescribing pharmaceuticals

13. What is NOT one of the ways in pharmaceutical companies and representatives

categorize their customers?

a. acute care vs. chronic care

b. office-based vs. hospital-based

c. primary care vs. specialty care

d. Companies and agents categorize their patients in all of these ways.

Quiz 19 Chapter 20

Which of the following are relatively new prescription drug benefits covered under the Medicare Prescription Drug Improvement & Modernization Act? a. HMO Plan 2006 b. Medicare Part A c. Medicare Part B d. Medicare Part D
Which term means “disease producer”? a. enzyme b. glidant c. isomer d. pathogen
Which type of blood cell plays the most prominent role in fighting infection and disease? a. red blood cell b. stem cell c. validated blood cell d. white blood cell
Which of the following generally resides on a cell surface (or in the cytoplasm) and causes a biological change or activity when stimulated? a. glidant b. leukocyte c. receptor

b. genetics c. microgenetics d. pharmacology

What are specialized cells and tissues that work together to perform a specific body function for a common purpose? a. membranes b. organs c. plasma d. proteins
What is the mechanism of action? a. a dose of medication that keeps/maintains the necessary plasma concentration levels for therapeutic benefit b. the method by which a medication produces its therapeutic effects c. time period between administering a medication and noticing a therapeutic effect d. typically oral or parenteral
What is plasma? a. the fluid portion of the blood b. the fluid portion of the lymphatic system c. the lining of the lungs d. the lining of the small intestine
What is anaphylaxis? a. a type of chemotherapy b. An extreme sensitivity and reaction to a foreign substance, including medications c. An interaction in which one medication reduces the effects of another medication d. When a medication produces active metabolites Quiz 20 Chapter 21 - 22
Which of the following is NOT a way in which CNS agents are used? a. as analgesics b. as anesthetics c. as anti-convulsants d. They are used in all these ways.
How do cholinergic agonists work? a. by inhibiting the actions of acetylcholine b. by inhibiting the actions of GABA c. by mimicking the actions of acetylcholine d. by mimicking the actions of GABA
Which of the following is considered a sympathomimetic drug that stimulates the alpha- adrenergic receptors?

a. Antihistamine b. Expectorant c. Decongestant d. Lung surfactant

Which of the following is NOT a type of gastrointestinal agents? a. gallstone solubizing agents b. H2 antagonists c. laxatives d. prolactin inhibitors
What is one of the main functions of a tocolytic agent? a. to decrease urine pH b. to increase urine pH c. to induce labor d. to suppress labor
Which of these conditions is NOT treated with antiandrogens? a. acne b. dyspepsia c. masculinization in women d. polycystic ovarian syndrome
which types of patients are MOST likely to receive immune globulins? a. patients with inflammatory conditions b. patients with weakened immune systems c. transplant recipients d. all of these
What is iron's primary function in the body? a. carrying oxygen b. inhibiting dopamine c. mimicking dopamine d. neutralizing gastric pH
Which of the following is NOT a type of anti-infectant? a. amebicides b. antimalarial agents c. antimetabolites d. carbapanems
What is one difference between entry-level and experienced résumés? a. Entry-level résumés are more likely to begin with the education section than the experience section. b. Entry-level résumés are more likely to contain a Summary of Qualifications. c. Experienced résumés are more likely to contain an Objective. d. Experienced résumés contain more extracurricular activities.
Which statement about targeted cover letters is true? a. Targeted cover letters are always solicited. b. Targeted cover letters are always tailored to specific companies. c. Targeted cover letters are only written for vacant positions.

CNPR-NAPSR question and answers 100% correct (chapters 1-22), Exams of Nursing

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Partial preview of the text

Download CNPR-NAPSR question and answers 100% correct (chapters 1-22) and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

transdermally? The entire dose is available in the bloodstream to be distributed

to the target site.

10. Which of the following does NOT affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues?

All of these factors affect a drug's distribution to its target tissues.

11. Which of these medical terms means “to apply the drug on the skin surface”?

transdermal

12. Carcinogenicity studies are carried out to identify the tumor-causing potential of

a drug. TRUE

1. According to NIH ethical guidelines, which of the following is the most important

criteria in selecting subjects for clinical studies? scientific objectives

2. Which statement about the IRB is INCORRECT? The members of the IRB/IEC must

be experts in the topic of the study

3. Which phases of clinical studies are open label and which are blinded? Phase I

and IV trials are often open label, but Phase II and III are double-blinded or at

least blinded.

4. If it is not possible to measure the direct effects of a drug, what is used instead?

surrogate markers such as blood pressure and cholesterol levels

5. Which of the following is an observational study that first identifies a group of

subjects with a certain disease and a control group without the disease, and then

looks to back in time (e.g., via chart reviews) to find exposure to risk factors?

case-control study

6. Which measure of central tendency is the sum of all observations divided by the

number of observations? mean

7. Which measurement describes the number of new events that occur during a

specified period of time in a population at risk for the event (e.g., lung infections

per year)? incidence

8. Which of the following measures is used to describe the variability of the

population mean? standard error of the mean

9. Which of the following terms denotes the extent to which a test actually

measures what it is supposed to be measuring, or what we think it is measuring?

validity

10. What are the Kaplan-Meier analysis and Cox proportional hazards analysis?

methods of survival analysis

11. What section of a clinical paper describes subjects' entry and exclusion criteria?

methods

12. Which document sets out how a trial is to be conducted (i.e., the study's general

design and operating features)? protocol

13. When designing and performing clinical trials, several ethical constraints must be

considered. Which of the following is NOT one of these ethical constraints?

geographic variations

Quiz 12 Chapter 12

1. What is one way in which large molecule drugs DIFFER from small molecule

drugs? Large molecule drugs are mainly protein-based drugs that develop in

biological systems such as living cells.

2. Which of the following statements about vaccines is INCORRECT? Vaccines are

types of small molecule drugs.

3. What is an advantage of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines?

Attenuated vaccines are less expensive to prepare.

4. How are toxoids derived? from the toxins secreted by a pathogen

5. What is the estimated annual death toll for malaria? 1.5 to 3.5 million people

6. There are more white blood cells than red blood cells for the same volume in the

human body. FALSE

7. How was insulin primarily obtained from the 1930s to the 1980s? porcine and

bovine extracts

8. Which of the following are NOT types of cytokines? All of these are types of

cytokines.

9. Which of the following is NOT a type of hormones? blood glucose

10. Which of the following is a basic gene therapy technique? in vitro, in which

patients' genetically faulted tissues are removed, loaded with normal genes in

vectors, and returned to the patients' bodies

11. Which statement about stem cells is CORRECT? Pluripotent stem cells can

develop into many cell types, but not a new individual.

12. Leukemia is a condition in which the stem cells in the bone marrow malfunction

and produce an excessive number of immature white blood cells. TRUE

13. Which of the following are types of vectors used in gene therapy? retroviruses

14. Which of the following is NOT a type of stem cell? pluripotent

15. Traditional vaccines are prepared in a number of ways. Which of the following is

NOT one of them? insulin

Quiz 13 Chapter 13

1 Effective drug therapy is a cost-effective and highly valuable means of controlling total

healthcare expenditures and improving quality of life. TRUE

2 Drug utilization review (DUR) programs have traditionally been used to ensure the

appropriate, safe, and effective use of prescription drugs, but are increasingly shifting

their focus to minimizing costs.

3 DUR programs involve retrospective monitoring of physicians’ prescribing patterns. TRUE

4 A formulary is a list of prescription drugs approved by insurance coverage. TRUE