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This document offers a comprehensive review of Modules 1 through 6 of a foundational networking course (NET), featuring over 150 multiple-choice and multiple-answer questions. Each question is accompanied by the correct answer and, in many cases, includes explanatory notes. Topics covered range from OSI and TCP/IP models, subnetting, VLANs, and routing protocols to physical network media, DHCP, DNS, NAT, IPv4/IPv6 addressing, and network troubleshooting. This resource is ideal for students preparing for networking exams like CompTIA Network+, Cisco CCNA, or institutional course assessments.
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A network engineer is configuring a point-to-point link between two routers on a WAN network. The link is intended to support a critical real-time application that requires continuous bidirectional data flow without any transmission delays.Which type of communication should the engineer configure on the point-to-point link to meet the application's requirements? A. Half-duplex communication with Quality of Service (QoS) prioritization to ensure real-time data is transmitted without delay. B. Half-duplex communication, because it allows for two-way communication with a guaranteed level of bandwidth. C. Full-duplex communication with multiple cables to increase the bandwidth and support the high data rate required by the application. D. Full-duplex communication, as it supports simultaneous bidirectional data flow, which is essential for real-time applications.- ✔✔-D At Layer 4 of the OSI model, which mechanism is responsible for ensuring reliable data delivery between hosts? A. The use of port numbers to identify different types of network traffic B. The encryption of data to prevent unauthorized access during transmission C. The implementation of flow control and error-checking protocols D. The assignment of IP addresses to route packets to their destination- ✔✔-C A network technician wants to create efficiencies in network traffic by implementing a device which applies microsegmentation by establishing a point-to-point link between any two network nodes. Which of the following should they implement? A. Access Point B. Hub C. Layer 2 switch D.Bridge- ✔✔-C Which function of the SOHO router is responsible for allocating a unique IP address to each host that connects to it? A. Network Address Translation (NAT) B. Virtual Private Network (VPN) C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Quality of Service (QoS)- ✔✔-C You are a network administrator troubleshooting an issue where a client computer is not properly receiving and handling different types of network traffic. You suspect that the problem lies with the de-multiplexing process at the Transport layer of the OSI model. Which of the following scenarios would MOST likely indicate a problem with the de-multiplexing process at the receiving host? (Select two.) A. The client computer receives a VoIP packet and correctly processes it as audio data. B. The client computer is experiencing slow network speeds due to congestion. C. The client computer is unable to establish a connection to the web server on port 80. D. The client computer is not receiving any packets from the network. E. The client computer receives an email data packet but processes it as web traffic.- ✔✔-A, E You want to implement a fault-tolerant topology as you connect routers on your wide area network. Which of the following topologies BEST meets your requirements? A. Bus B. Mesh C. Ring D. Star- ✔✔-B A network administrator notices that communication to a particular node in a star topology network consistently fails. The node is located at a significant distance from the central switch, further than any other node on the network. The administrator suspects that the distance may be causing signal degradation. What is the MOST appropriate solution to resolve this issue? A. Increase the bandwidth of the central switch. B. Use a repeater to strengthen the signal over the extended distance. C. Replace the switch with a hub to increase signal strength. D. Implement a mesh topology for the entire network.- ✔✔-B Which of the following layers are part of the four-layer hierarchy of the Internet model? (Select two.) A. Presentation Layer B. Application Layer C. Internet Layer D. Physical Layer E. Session Layer- ✔✔-B, C Which of the following statements accurately describe characteristics of the decimal numbering system? (Select two.) A. Each digit can have one of ten possible values. B. Each digit can have one of two possible values.
When verifying a solution to a reported problem, what is the primary goal? A. To implement additional features unrelated to the problem B. To validate that the solution fixes the reported problem without affecting the system's overall functionality C. To change the system's configuration settings D. To ensure the system functions faster than before- ✔✔-B You receive reports from several departments that users are experiencing intermittent network connectivity issues: slow internet speeds, inability to access network drives, and occasional disconnect from the email server. Given the symptoms and the fact that they are affecting multiple departments, you decide to troubleshoot the issue. What is the BEST approach to begin troubleshooting the connectivity issues? A. Methodically prove the functionality of each component in the network system, starting from the user access layer and moving towards the core network infrastructure. B. Check the organization's internet usage policy to ensure no department is exceeding its bandwidth allocation. C. Restart all user devices in the affected departments to see if the issues resolve themselves. D. Send a memo to all employees asking them to refrain from using the Internet for non-work related activities to reduce network load.- ✔✔-A A freelance photographer is setting up a home office. They need to connect a desktop, a laptop, a network printer, and occasionally, guests' devices to the Internet and to each other for file sharing and printing. Which type of network is MOST suitable for this scenario? A. PAN (Personal Area Network) B. SOHO (Small Office/Home Office) Network C. MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) D. CAN (Campus Area Network)- ✔✔-B You are setting up a small office network with several computers, a printer, and a network storage device. All devices are connected to a single switch. You want to ensure that each device can communicate with the others on the network. To facilitate this communication, you need to consider the type of addressing that is used at the Data Link layer. What type of address is used at the Data Link layer to ensure each device can communicate with the others on the same network segment? A. Port numbers assigned by the network applications B. MAC addresses that are unique to each network interface C. Hostnames configured by the network administrator D. IP addresses assigned by a DHCP server- ✔✔-B
You've implemented a network where each device provides all other devices on the network with access to shared files. Which type of network have you implemented? A. Multiple access B. Client-server C. Polling D. Peer-to-peer- ✔✔-D When troubleshooting a problem, which of the following are typical solutions? (Select three.) A. Repair B. Accept C. Escalate D. Ignore E. Replace F. Postpone G. Outsource- ✔✔-A, B, E How is Customer Premises Equipment (CPE) connected to the local loop? A. Through a direct satellite link B. Using an infrared signal C. Through a wireless Bluetooth connection D. Via its modem and WAN port- ✔✔-D What is a major difference when comparing Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) to CWDM? A. DWDM requires less precise lasers than CWDM. B. DWDM is typically used for shorter distance transmissions than CWDM. C. DWDM supports fewer channels than CWDM. D. DWDM provisions greater numbers of channels with much less spacing between each channel.- ✔✔- D A network administrator is trying to figure out which switch will be rooted in a Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) setup Which of the following would determine the root? A. Lowest ID B. BPDU C. Highest ID D. DPs- ✔✔-A Which IEEE standard is typically implemented for link aggregation? A. IEEE 802.
What is the primary difference between modular and fixed switches? A. Fixed switches allow for configuration of settings, while modular switches operate with fixed settings. B. Fixed switches have a set number of ports that cannot be changed, whereas modular switches can be configured with different numbers and types of ports. C. Modular switches cannot be connected together, whereas fixed switches can form a switch stack. D. Modular switches are designed for desktop use, while fixed switches are rack-mounted.- ✔✔-B What distinguishes a managed switch from an unmanaged switch in a network environment? A. An unmanaged switch supports high-speed backplanes and expandable capacity, while a managed switch does not. B. A managed switch allows for configuration of its settings, whereas an unmanaged switch operates with fixed settings and cannot be configured. C. Managed switches are exclusively used in SOHO networks, whereas unmanaged switches are used in corporate networks. D. A managed switch cannot be added to the network without extensive configuration, while an unmanaged switch can operate without any configuration.- ✔✔-B What is a likely cause of cyclic redundancy check (CRC) errors? A. Interference affecting the signal quality B. Low network traffic C. A stable and strong signal D. Identical duplex settings on connected devices- ✔✔-A You are tasked with configuring a new switch to ensure that a specific port, GigabitEthernet 0/3, is only used by a device with a known MAC address for security reasons. Which of the following steps and commands are necessary to achieve this? A. Enter interface configuration mode for GigabitEthernet 0/3, enable port security, and then specify the allowed MAC address. B. Set the switch port to trunk mode and specify the allowed VLANs. C. Enable DHCP snooping on the switch to track the device's MAC address. D. Directly specify the allowed MAC address in the global configuration mode.- ✔✔-A How can a broadcast storm be mitigated if spanning tree is already enabled? A. Increase the bandwidth of the network. B. Disable all switches on the network. C. Verify compatible versions of Spanning Tree Protocol are enabled on all switches. D. Remove all MAC addresses from the MAC address table.- ✔✔-C You are configuring a network that includes a mix of devices, some of which support jumbo frames and others that do not. You need to ensure optimal performance while maintaining compatibility across the network. What is the BEST approach to configuring the MTU settings on your devices?
A. Configure devices that support jumbo frames to use the maximum size available and leave others at their default settings. B. Configure all devices to use the maximum jumbo frame size supported by any device on the network. C. Identify the highest MTU supported by all devices and configure each device to use this MTU. D. Configure all devices to use the standard MTU of 1500 bytes.- ✔✔-D Why are all ports on a hub considered to be in the same collision domain? A. Because hubs repeat signals to all ports, sharing the same bandwidth and media access B. Because hubs use a special protocol to prevent collisions from occurring C. Because hubs are typically used in networks that do not experience collisions D. Because hubs can intelligently direct traffic to avoid collisions- ✔✔-A What is the purpose of the detection phase in a PoE switch? A. To identify whether the connected device is PoE-enabled and determine its power consumption B. To test the strength of the Ethernet cable C. To encrypt the data being transmitted to the device D. To determine the optimal data transmission rate- ✔✔-A Which of the following is NOT a component of a standard Ethernet frame header? A. Destination and source MAC address fields B. EtherType field C. Error checking field D. Payload size indicator- ✔✔-D What improvement does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) offer over the original 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol? A. Outages lasting tens of seconds B. Longer convergence times C. Elimination of the listening state D. Increased number of port states- ✔✔-C What is the primary purpose of a Multi-Source Agreement (MSA) in the context of modular transceivers? A. To decrease the cost of transceivers B. To standardize the size of transceivers C. To ensure compatibility between transceivers from different vendors D. To increase the data transmission speed of transceivers- ✔✔-C Which of the following commands transitions a user from User EXEC mode to Privileged EXEC mode in a Cisco device?
D. Difficulty of installation- ✔✔-B What is the maximum amount of untwisting allowed for Cat 6 cables during termination? A. 0.5 inches (1.27 cm) B. 0.375 inches (1 cm) C. 1 inch (2.54 cm) D. 2 inches (5.08 cm)- ✔✔-B What mark is given to plenum-rated data cable under the US National Electrical Code (NEC)? A. CMP/MMP B. CMG/MMG C. CMR/MPR D. CM/MP- ✔✔-A What are the potential causes of intermittent loss of connectivity in a cabling system? (Select two.) A. Properly terminated cabling B. Crosstalk C. Excessive untwisting at the cable ends D. Use of fiber optic cables instead of copper E. Attenuation- ✔✔-C, E Which of the following factors can adversely affect network throughput? (Select two.) A. The color of the Ethernet cables B. Link distance C. Interference (noise) D. The brand of network routers used E. Encoding schemes- ✔✔-B, C What does it indicate if an LED fails to light up or does not light in sequence during a wire map test? A. There is a problem with the cable and/or termination. B. The cable is of high quality. C. The cable is shielded. D. The cable length is too long.- ✔✔-A You are tasked with installing structured cable from a bulk spool in a new office building. You need to ensure that the cable runs from the telecommunications closet to multiple work areas. Which of the following steps is crucial to ensure a successful installation? A. Pulling the cable through conduits or wall spaces, avoiding excessive bends and proximity to electrical power cables B. Running the cable directly over fluorescent lights to minimize the distance covered
C. Bundling as many cables as possible, regardless of their destination, to speed up the installation process D. Cutting the cable into predetermined lengths before routing it through the building- ✔✔-A Which organizations have created categories of cable standards for twisted pair to simplify the selection of a suitable quality cable? A. IEEE and IETF B. ISO and IEC C. ITU and ETSI D. ANSI and TIA/EIA- ✔✔-D Which of the following BEST describes riser data cable? A. Cable that is only used for fiber optic connections B. Cable that is used for horizontal runs within a single floor C. Cable that is specifically designed for outdoor use and exposure to the elements D. Cable that passes between two floors and must be fire-stopped- ✔✔-D Which of the following is a correct statement about the installation of rack-mounted appliances? A. Appliances can be screwed directly into the rack if there is little need for maintenance. B. Non-standard components cannot be installed in racks under any circumstances. C. Appliances should always be installed on the topmost rack for easy access. D. All appliances must be installed using rail kits for safety reasons.- ✔✔-A A network technician is researching standards for the physical and data link layer. Which standard, developed to implement the functions of the physical and data link layers of the OSI model, is the most important? A. 802. B. 802.1D C. 802. D. 802.1X- ✔✔-A What is the primary function of blanking plates in a rack system? A. To provide additional support to the equipment B. To increase the rack's weight capacity C. To improve airflow D. To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the rack- ✔✔-C Which combination correctly represents the three elements of the fire triangle? A. Oxygen, electricity, and fuel B. Heat, fuel, and carbon dioxide C. Oxygen, heat, and water
D. Coaxial (coax) E. HDMI- ✔✔-C, D Which type of optical fiber is normally used to connect two buildings that are several kilometers apart? A. Single-mode fiber B. Multi-mode fiber C. Coaxial cable D. Shielded twisted pair- ✔✔-A A company is upgrading its legacy network infrastructure. The existing network is based on 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet with a mix of hubs and switches. The IT manager wants to improve network performance while maintaining compatibility with older devices that only support 10 Mbps Ethernet interfaces. What feature should the IT manager ensure the new network devices support to maintain compatibility with older devices? A. Autonegotiation B. Higher frequency signaling C. Use of hubs instead of switches D. Full-duplex transmissions- ✔✔-A What does the term "speed" refer to in the context of network performance? A. The color coding of Ethernet cables for different network segments B. The physical durability of network cables C. The time it takes for a packet to travel from its source to its destination, also known as latency D. The maximum capacity of a network switch- ✔✔-C A university campus is upgrading its network to enhance connectivity between its library and the computer science department, which are 500 meters apart. The upgrade aims to facilitate intensive data exchange for research purposes, including large datasets and high-definition video streaming. Given the distance and the high bandwidth requirements, which type of cable should the university use? A. Satellite Link B. Single Mode Fiber (SMF) C. Cat 6 UTP Cable D. Multimode Fiber (MMF)- ✔✔-D A school wants to expand its network to accommodate new classrooms and administrative offices. Currently, it is based on the 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet standard with a combination of hubs and switches. They want to add 50 new workstations, they will be distributed across the school, some 90 meters away from the nearest network device. The IT team is considering the best approach to integrate these new workstations into the existing network while ensuring optimal performance and compatibility with potential future upgrades. What should they prioritize to ensure the success of the new workstations into the existing 100BASE-TX Fast Ethernet network in the MOST effective way?
A. Extend the fiber optic backbone to each new workstation. B. Use fiber optic cables for all new horizontal links. C. Implement autonegotiation on all network devices. D. Replace all existing hubs with switches to reduce collision domains.- ✔✔-D During a network upgrade, you are consulting with a small business owner who is deciding between using T568A or T568B for their new Ethernet infrastructure. The business is located in a residential area, and the owner plans to use the network for both business and personal devices. The owner is seeking your advice on which standard to choose. Based on the business owner's situation, what would you recommend? A. Choose T568A because it is mandated by the residential cabling standard. B. Choose T568A because it is cheaper to implement than T568B. C. Choose T568B because it is more secure than T568A. D. Choose T568B because it offers higher data transfer speeds.- ✔✔-A You maintain the network for an industrial manufacturing company. A short-circuit of a switch in the server room starts an electrical fire. Which of the following should you use to suppress the fire? (Select two.) A. Water-Based (Wet-Pipe) Sprinkler System B. Clean Agent Fire Suppression System (such as FM-200/HFC-227) C. Dry-Pipe Sprinkler System D. Class C Fire Extinguisher E. CO2 Fire Extinguisher- ✔✔-B, D A university's IT department is tasked with connecting two campus buildings with a high-speed data link to support current and future network traffic. They are 3km apart, and there is an existing SMF cable. They want to maximize the use of this fiber strand to support multiple high-speed data channels services including internet, video, and secure admin data transfers. Given the above, what WDM solution should they use? A. Deploy Simplex Wavelength Division Multiplexing (SWDM) for its advanced single-direction data transmission capabilities. B. Utilize Coarse Wavelength Division Multiplexing (CWDM) to support up to 16 channels on the existing infrastructure. C. Utilize Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) to ensure maximum scalability and support for future growth. D. Implement Bidirectional Wavelength Division Multiplexing (BiDi) for its simplicity and cost- effectiveness.- ✔✔-B A company is planning to restructure its network into multiple subnets to improve security and manageability. The network needs to support four departments: Sales, Marketing, HR, and IT. Each department requires its own subnet. Additionally, the company wants to reserve two subnets for future expansion. How many subnets are required in total?
What is the maximum possible value for any octet in an IPv4 address? A. 256 B. 192 C. 255 D. 128- ✔✔-C What is the role of routers in handling broadcast traffic? A. Routers do not forward broadcast traffic, except under specially configured circumstances. B. Routers convert broadcast traffic into unicast traffic for efficient delivery. C. Routers forward broadcast traffic by default. D. Routers ignore broadcast traffic entirely.- ✔✔-A A university is setting up a new network infrastructure for its campus. The network design needs to accommodate four different subnets for the Administration, Library, Dormitories, and Laboratories. The requirements for the number of IP addresses for each subnet are as follows: Administration requires 30 IP addresses, Library needs 14 IP addresses, Dormitories require 60 IP addresses, and Laboratories need 28 IP addresses. The university has been allocated a /24 network. Using VLSM, how should the network engineer allocate the subnet sizes to minimize IP address wastage? A. /26 for Dormitories, /27 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /28 for Library B. /25 for Dormitories, /26 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /27 for Library C. /26 for Dormitories, /27 for Laboratories, /28 for Administration, /28 for Library D. /26 for Dormitories, /26 for Laboratories, /27 for Administration, /27 for Library- ✔✔-C A company wants to improve flow and reduce IP address waste. The network is divided into 5 segments: Research, Development, Sales, Customer Support, and Management. The IP reqs: Research 50 adds, Development 100 adds, Sales 25 adds, Customer Support 30 adds, and Management 10 adds. The company has a /23 network. Using VLSM, the netadmin allocates subnet sizes based on these reqs. After, the admin realizes there are lots of unused adds. What is the MOST likely reason for this inefficiency? A. The administrator did not allocate the largest subnet sizes possible for each segment. B. The administrator allocated subnet sizes based strictly on current requirements without considering future growth. C. The administrator did not properly calculate the subnet sizes, leading to an overestimation of needs. D. The administrator allocated subnet sizes without considering the hierarchical structure of IP address allocation.- ✔✔-D At which layer of the OSI model does troubleshooting IP configuration issues primarily take place? A. Transport Layer B. Physical Layer C. Network Layer
D. Data Link Layer- ✔✔-C A cybersecurity analyst is investigating a series of suspicious network activities that have been flagged by the intrusion detection system. The analyst notices a pattern of packets that have unusually large sizes, which could indicate an attempt to exploit vulnerabilities through fragmentation attacks. To further analyze these packets and identify potential threats, the analyst decides to examine the IPv datagram headers of the captured packets. Which field in the IPv4 datagram header should the analyst focus on to determine the size of these packets and assess the risk of fragmentation attacks? A. Total Length field B. Fragment Offset field C. Time to Live (TTL) field D. Identification field- ✔✔-A You have just connected a new computer to your network. The network uses static IP addressing. You find that the computer can communicate with hosts on the same subnet, but not with hosts on a different subnet. No other computers are having issues. Which of the following configuration values would you MOST likely need to change? A. Subnet mask B. Default gateway C. DNS server D. IP address- ✔✔-B Consider the following IPv6 address: FE80:0000:0000:0055:0000:0000:000A:AB Which of the following are valid shortened forms of this address? (Select two.) A. FE80::55:0000:0000:A:AB B. FE80::55::A:AB C. FE80::0055::000A:AB D. FE80::55::A:AB E. FE80:0000:0000:0055::000A:AB00- ✔✔-A, E You are configuring a network monitoring tool to filter and analyze traffic based on the type of data being transmitted over the network. You need to ensure that the tool captures all traffic related to web browsing activities. Given that web browsing typically uses HTTP and HTTPS protocols, which operate over TCP, what value should you configure the tool to filter on in the IPv4 datagram header? A. Protocol field value of 17 B. Protocol field value of 6 C. Protocol field value of 1 D. Protocol field value of 2- ✔✔-B What issue arises when a host has an incorrect subnet mask that is longer than it should be?
A. ipconfig B. netstat C. ifconfig D. ping- ✔✔-A A network administrator is troubleshooting a network issue in a multi-interface device that operates both an Ethernet and a Wi-Fi connection. The administrator discovers that despite both interfaces having a valid IPv6 link local address, there seems to be confusion about where packets should be routed for local network operations. What should the administrator check to resolve this issue? A. The zone indices appended to the link local addresses B. The subnet masks of the interfaces C. The encryption settings of the interfaces D. The global unicast addresses of the interfaces- ✔✔-A When performing subnet calculations, what should you remember? (Select two.) A. Memorize the decimal values for the number of bits set to 1 in an octet within a mask. B. Subnet calculations are unnecessary if you use DHCP. C. Always use the same subnet mask for every subnet to simplify calculations. D. The subnet mask can be any random set of numbers as long as it looks complex. E. Think in terms of the number of mask bits.- ✔✔-A, E You are troubleshooting a network issue where a remote server is not responding to your web application's requests. You decide to use the ping command to check the connectivity to the server. After running the command ping 192.168.1.10, you receive a series of "Reply from 192.168.1.10" messages with varying RTT times. What can you infer about the network condition based on this output? A. The web application is incompatible with the remote server. B. There is a high level of packet loss between her host and the remote server. C. The remote server's firewall is blocking her requests. D. The remote server is online, and there is a network path between her host and the server.- ✔✔-D Which file was historically used for applying persistent IP configuration in Linux? A. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-eth B. /etc/NetworkManager/NetworkManager.conf C. /etc/netplan/01-netcfg.yaml D. /etc/network/interfaces- ✔✔-D A university's IT department is tasked with creating a subnet for a new dormitory that will house 120 students. Each student will be provided with one IP address for their personal device. To optimize the use of the university's allocated IP address space, which subnet mask should the IT department use for this subnet?
What should you check if a remote IP address cannot be contacted? A. The default gateway parameter on the local host B. The IP address of the local host C. The network protocol stack installation D. The IP configuration of other hosts on the same subnet- ✔✔-A Which protocol does an IP host use to inform a router that it wants to receive specific multicast frames? A. ICMP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. IGMP- ✔✔-D A network engineer is tasked with configuring a new network segment for the marketing department. The department requires its own VLAN (VLAN50) to segregate its traffic from the rest of the company. The network consists of a Layer 3 switch and multiple Layer 2 switches. The engineer decides to use an SVI for VLAN routing. Which of the following commands should the engineer use to configure the SVI for VLAN50 on the Layer 3 switch? A. switchport mode access vlan 50 B. interface VLAN50 ip address 192.168.50.1 255.255.255. C. vlan 50 D. interface G0/1.50 encapsulation dot1Q 50- ✔✔-B After configuring a new router in the network, a network administrator notices that some devices are unable to access external websites. The administrator verifies that the devices have the correct IP configuration, including the new router as their default gateway. What could be the reason for this connectivity issue? A. The new router is using an incorrect routing protocol. B. The new router has a misconfigured default route. C. The devices are not using the correct DNS server. D. The devices have an incorrect subnet mask configured.- ✔✔-B Which feature is most likely to be supported by routers designed for medium to large networks? A. No support for virtual private networks (VPNs) B. Plug-in cards for WAN interfaces C. Limited to four Ethernet ports