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CTAS Anatomy and Physiology 1 II (BI 302) Endocrine System, Muscular System 2024 Self-Asse, Exams of Anatomy

University of Tennessee MartinAnatomy

CTAS Anatomy and Physiology 1 II (BI 302) Endocrine System, Muscular System 2024 Self-Assessment Practice Questions(multiple choices) A&P II -- REVIEW SECTION I – Endocrine System, Muscular System 1) Which of the following is true regarding the endocrine system? a. The endocrine system demonstrates a slow response to stimuli, compared to the nervous system b. The endocrine system uses chemical transmitters called hormones that travel long distances to target cells c. The endocrine system can be modified by nervous stimuli d. The endocrine system utilizes both exocrine and apocrine structures to communicate to other tissues e. Each of these are correct regarding the endocrine system

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CTAS Anatomy and Physiology 1 II (BI 302) Endocrine System, Muscular System
2024 Self-Assessment Practice Questions(multiple choices)
A&P II -- REVIEW SECTION I – Endocrine System, Muscular System
1) Which of the following is true regarding the endocrine system?
a. The endocrine system demonstrates a slow response to stimuli, compared to the nervous
system
b. The endocrine system uses chemical transmitters called hormones that travel long distances
to target cells
c. The endocrine system can be modified by nervous stimuli
d. The endocrine system utilizes both exocrine and apocrine structures to communicate
to other tissues
e. Each of these are correct regarding the endocrine system
2) Which of the following statements regarding hormones is incorrect?
a. Hormones and neurotransmitters require a synapse in order to communicate information to
other cells and tissues.
b. Only cells that have receptors to a certain hormone may be affected by that hormone.
c. Hormones can cause target cells to alter patterns of gene expression, producing proteins in
different quantities
d. G proteins and cAMP are second messengers that serve to enhance or amplify the hormonal
effect.
e. Each of these are correct regarding hormones.
3) Which of the following statements is false regarding the hypothalamus?
a. Hypothalamus is an organ with neural & endocrine functions.
b. Controls the adenohypophysis via releasing and inhibiting hormones.
c. Directly secretes a hormone that lowers blood pressure by increasing urine output.
d. Directly secretes a hormone that increases force of contractions during labor.
e. Each of these statements regarding the hypothalamus is correct.
4) Which of the following hormones come from anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
a. Inhibin
b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
c. Triiodothyronine
d. Oxytocin
e. ADH
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CTAS Anatomy and Physiology 1 II (BI 302) Endocrine System, Muscular System

2024 Self-Assessment Practice Questions(multiple choices)

A&P II -- REVIEW SECTION I – Endocrine System, Muscular System

  1. Which of the following is true regarding the endocrine system? a. The endocrine system demonstrates a slow response to stimuli, compared to the nervous system b. The endocrine system uses chemical transmitters called hormones that travel long distances to target cells c. The endocrine system can be modified by nervous stimuli d. The endocrine system utilizes both exocrine and apocrine structures to communicate to other tissues e. Each of these are correct regarding the endocrine system
  2. Which of the following statements regarding hormones is incorrect? a. Hormones and neurotransmitters require a synapse in order to communicate information to other cells and tissues. b. Only cells that have receptors to a certain hormone may be affected by that hormone. c. Hormones can cause target cells to alter patterns of gene expression, producing proteins in different quantities d. G proteins and cAMP are second messengers that serve to enhance or amplify the hormonal effect. e. Each of these are correct regarding hormones.
  3. Which of the following statements is false regarding the hypothalamus? a. Hypothalamus is an organ with neural & endocrine functions. b. Controls the adenohypophysis via releasing and inhibiting hormones. c. Directly secretes a hormone that lowers blood pressure by increasing urine output. d. Directly secretes a hormone that increases force of contractions during labor. e. Each of these statements regarding the hypothalamus is correct.
  4. Which of the following hormones come from anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? a. Inhibin b. Adrenocorticotropic hormone c. Triiodothyronine d. Oxytocin e. ADH
  1. When blood Calcium level is elevated, the body is in a state of hypercalcemia. Which gland is responsible for secreting a hormone to return Ca2+^ level to normal and therefore maintain homeostasis? a. Hypothalamus b. Pituitary c. Thyroid d. Parathyroid e. Kidney
  2. Which of the following is not an effect of a hormone secreted by the adrenal gland? a. Temporary elevation of blood sugar b. Prolonging of the effect of the sympathetic nervous system c. Suppression or limiting of inflammation d. Stimulation of thirst e. Each of these may be effects of hormones secreted by the adrenal gland
  3. Diabetes mellitus is a deficiency or limited activity of which hormone? a. Glucagon b. Intrinsic factor c. Growth hormone d. Gastrin e. Insulin
  4. Match the correct hormone pair that have antagonistic effects? a. Calcitonin-parathyroid hormone b. Glucagon-gastrin c. Estrogen-testosterone d. Gonadotropic releasing hormone-luteinizing hormone e. Leptin-growth hormone
  5. Which connective tissue layer surrounds the biceps femoris muscle belly, separating it from the rest of the body? a. Epimyseum b. Perimyseum c. Endomyseum d. Blood e. Loose areolar tissue
  1. Since Adonis was unable lift the dumbbell, he decided to use the exercise bike for a cardiovascular workout. During maximum exertion on the exercise bike, Adonis began to breathe heavily and felt “the burn” in his legs. The skeletal muscles of his legs were using primarily which form of respiration at maximum exertion? a. Aerobic respiration b. Electron transport chain c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Glycolyis e. Lipolysis f. None of the above
  2. Which is true of dark (red) muscle? a. This muscle is optimized for endurance training b. There is less mitochondria in this muscle c. This muscle contains more fast-twitch fibers d. This muscle contains an equal amount of fast and slow twitch fibers e. None of the above statements are correct regarding dark muscle
  3. All are characteristics of smooth muscle, except? a. Usually forms 2 layers at right angles to each other b. Utilizes troponin to help initiate muscle contraction c. Contains no striations d. Action potentials travel between muscle fibers quickly via tight junctions e. Serves to close sphincters, digestive motility, change blood vessel diameter ANSWER KEY: A&P II -- Review Section I 1 e, 2 a, 3 e, 4 b, 5 c, 6 e, 7 e, 8 a, 9 a, 10 d, 11 e, 12 e, 13 c, 14 a, 15 d, 16 a, 17 b

A&P II -- REVIEW SECTION II – The Heart, Vascular System

  1. Which of the following is a valve that contains 2 cusps and allows blood to flow into a ventricle? a. Right semilunar valve b. Left semilunar valve c. Tricuspid valve d. Mitral valve e. Inferior vena cava
  2. Which of the following is responsible for closing the left AV valve? a. Beginning of atrial systole (atrial contraction) b. Beginning of atrial diastole c. Beginning of ventricular systole (ventricular contraction), where pressure in ventricle is greater than left atrium d. Beginning of ventricular diastole, where pressure inside aorta is greater than that of left ventricle e. Contraction of papillary muscles, which pull on corda tendinae
  3. Which of the following statements is false regarding heart disease and myocardial infarction (MI)? a. MI is caused by cardiac ischemia resulting in loss of function and eventual tissue death in an area of the myocardium b. Cardiac ischemia is caused by occlusion of one or more coronary arteries by atherosclerosis c. The most common blocked coronary artery is the left circumflex artery d. Common symptoms of MI may include chest pain, shortness of breath, fatigue, clammy skin, nausea, anxiety e. The most frequent cause of death in women is heart disease
  4. Which of the following statements is false regarding the cardiac conducting system? a. The conducting system is responsible for the distribution and precise timing of electrical stimulation within the heart muscle. b. The conducting system demonstrates auto-rhythmicity and does not require neural or endocrine input in order to function. c. The correct order of conduction is: SA node ^ internodal fibers ^ AV node ^ bundle of His  bundle branches ^ moderator band and Purkinje fibers. d. The AV node is the natural pacemaker of the heart, establishing cardiac rhythm at 60- bpm. e. Each of these statements are correct regarding the cardiac conducting system.
  1. Which of the following factors is not involved in determining cardiac output? a. Atrial Stretch b. Hormonal regulation c. Autonomic nervous regulation d. Peripheral Resistance e. Each of these factors plays a role in determining cardiac output
  2. Which of the following is a direct measurement of the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood? a. viscosity. b. specific gravity. c. hemoglobin. d. hematocrit. e. differential cell count.
  3. Which of the following can increase blood flow? a. Increasing diameter of arteries and arterioles b. Increasing the length of blood vessels c. Increasing the hematocrit d. Increasing turbulence within blood vessels e. None of these statements result in an increased blood flow
  4. An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would most likely result in: a. pernicious anemia. b. renal anemia. c. secretion of EPO (erythropoietin). d. decreased systemic blood pressure. e. increased sensitivity to vitamin K.
  5. All is true regarding the unique shape of red blood cells except: a. Red blood cells are shaped like biconcave discs. b. Red blood cells shape allows for a larger surface area-to-volume ratio. c. Shape allows erythrocytes to carry carbon dioxide from the body's cells to the lungs. d. Shape allows red blood cells to form stacked rouleaux when passing through capillaries. e. Each of these statements are correct.
  6. Type AB blood has which erythrocyte surface typing antigens? a. A b. B c. A and B d. no typing antigens e. D
  1. (True or False) A fetus with Type A- blood is at risk for erythroblastosis fetalis from a mother with Type B+. a. True b. False
  2. Type O blood has antibodies to which of the following in the blood plasma? a. anti-A b. anti-B c. anti-A and anti-B d. neither anti-A nor anti-B e. anti-O
  3. The common pathway of coagulation is initiated by the: a. activation of Factor X. b. activation of proenzymes (Factor XII) exposed to collagen fibers at injury site c. release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. d. release of heparin from the liver. e. conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
  4. The common pathway of coagulation ends with the: a. sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. b. activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. c. release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. d. activation of Factor X. e. conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
  5. Fluid is reabsorbed in which of the following vessels? a. arteries. b. arterioles. c. veins. d. venules. e. capillaries.
  6. All are responses to hemorrhaging except: a. Cardiac and aortic reflexes increase cardiac output. b. Constriction of arterioles. c. Constriction of veins. d. ADH and angiotensin II are released. e. Capillary hydrostatic pressure is increased.

A&P II -- REVIEW SECTION III – Lymphatics & Immunity, The Respiratory System

  1. (True or False) A function of the lymphatic system is to help maintain normal blood volume by returning interstitial fluid as lymph to the venous circulation. a. True b. False
  2. Any of the following may provoke an immune response except: a. an injury to tissue, such as a cut or chemical burn. b. influenza virus. c. cancer cells. d. a healthy cell in a person with autoimmune disease. e. Each of the above may provoke an immune response.
  3. Which of the following lymphocytes are involved in innate immunity? a. natural killer (NK) cells b. plasma cells c. CD8 T cells d. B memory cells e. neutrophils
  4. An inflammatory response is triggered when: a. red blood cells release pyrogens. b. T cells release interferon. c. mast cells release histamine and heparin. d. A patient is administered a local immunosuppressant such as cortisone. e. blood flow to an area is decreased.
  5. The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to: a. the cell wall of bacteria. b. the plasma membrane of bacteria. c. two antibodies attached to an antigen. d. a cell surface antigen. e. a plasma protein.
  6. Each of the following is true regarding the spleen, except: a. Spleen is located posterolateral to the stomach, and contacts the diaphragm and left kidney. b. Splenic veins, arteries, and lymphatic vessels communicate with the spleen at the hilum. c. The spleen is a primary lymphoid organ, serving to filter lymph fluid. d. Lymphocytes and dendritic cells are concentrated in the white pulp. e. Injury to the spleen is often best treated by splenectomy (excision of the spleen).
  1. Activated c3b to the cell wall of an infected cell or pathogen is the end-result of which of the following pathway(s)? a. classical pathway. b. lectin pathway. c. alternative pathway. d. classical and alternative pathways only. e. classical, lectin, as well as alternative pathways.
  2. (True or False) All formed elements of the blood possess major histocompatibility complex I (MHC I) on their cell surfaces. a. True b. False
  3. A class of immunoglobulins found concentrated in breast milk, and thus serve to passively and naturally enhance the specific immune system of a newborn is: a. IgA. b. IgD. c. IgE. d. IgG. e. IgM.
  4. A sensitized B cell is activated once: a. it binds a helper T cell that releases cytokines. b. it binds a cytotoxic T cell. c. memory B cells have been cloned. d. it has cloned plasma cells. e. antibodies have been produced.
  5. Which form of epithelial tissue may be found in the upper respiratory system (URS)? a. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium. b. moist cuboidal epithelium. c. simple squamous epithelium. d. stratified squamous epithelium. e. None of the above tissue types are found in the URS.
  6. Which respiratory division includes the larynx and respiratory structures distal? a. upper respiratory tract. b. lower respiratory tract. c. internal respiratory tract. d. alveoli of the respiratory tract. e. respiratory mucosa.
  1. The pulmonary ventilation rate for someone with tidal volume of 500 mL and a respiration rate of 14 bpm is: a. 6,000 L/min b. 6 L/min c. 7 L/min d. 4.2 L/min e. 4.55 L/min
  2. Which of the following factors would decrease the amount of oxygen discharged by hemoglobin to peripheral tissues? a. increased temperature b. decreased pH c. decreased tissue PO d. decreased amounts of BPG e. Increased tissue PCO
  3. An increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in a(n): a. decrease in the rate of breathing. b. increase of the respiratory rate. c. decrease of pulmonary ventilation. d. decrease of the alveolar ventilation rate. e. decrease in the vital capacity.
  1. Identify and calculate the following volumes and capacities: a. Tidal Volume b. Inspiratory Reserve Volume c. Expiratory Reserve Volume d. Residual Volume e. Total Lung Capacity f. Inspriatory Capacity g. Functional Residual Capacity ANSWER KEY: A&P II -- Review Section III 44 a, 45 e, 46 a, 47 c, 48 c, 49 c, 50 e, 51 a, 52 a, 53 a, 54 a 55 b, 56 e, 57 b, 58 a, 59 d, 60 d, 61 e, 62 c, 63 d, 64 b, 65 a. A (500mL), b. B (3300mL), c. C (1000mL), d. G (1200mL), e. D (6000mL), f. E (3800mL), g, H (2200mL), 66
  1. The primary role of the phosphate buffer system is to? a. buffer stomach acid b. buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide c. limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids d. buffer the urine e. increase ventilation
  2. When the pH ________, a state of alkalosis exists. a. rises above 7 b. falls below 7 c. falls below 6. d. falls below 7. e. rises above 7.
  3. Which of the following is a respiratory response to acidosis? a. secretion of H+ b. increase tubule buffer activity c. decreased respiratory rate d. decreased ventilation-perfusion ratio e. removal of CO
  4. The kidney does all of the following when the pH of the extracellular fluid drops , EXCEPT: a. excrete more hydrogen ions. b. excrete fewer bicarbonate ions. c. secrete more hydrogen ions and more bicarbonate ions. d. secrete more hydrogen ions and fewer bicarbonate ions. e. Each of the above statements are true
  5. Hypocapnia refers to: a. Low oxygen. b. Low hemoglobin. c. Low carbon monoxide. d. High sodium. e. High chloride.
  1. Refer to the diagram of the nephron and answer the following: a. What are the parts of the nephron (labelled 1 through 6 in the diagram)? b. What process(es) occur at each location? (ie., filtration occurs at location #1, the glomerular capsule, etc.) c. Where are nutrients, vitamins, and water reabsorbed? d. Where does countercurrent exchange occur (how does countercurrent exchange occur)? e. Where are toxins, drugs excreted? f. Which area(s) are most sensitive to hormones such as ADH and aldosterone?
  2. The dartos muscle is responsible for: a. Temperature regulation. b. hernia. c. Wrinkled appearance of scrotum. d. Maintenance of pH. e. Sperm motility.