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This study guide provides a comprehensive overview of key concepts and answers for the emt fisdap final exam. It covers a wide range of topics, including critical incident stress debriefing, prehospital emergency training, patient care reporting, legal considerations, communication skills, and more. The guide is designed to help emt candidates prepare for the exam and ensure they have a strong understanding of essential knowledge and skills.
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A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than ________ hours following the incident. - ✔✔ 72 Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of prehospital emergency training? - ✔✔AED As an EMT, it is important to remember that the signs and symptoms of cumulative stress: - ✔✔may not be present or obvious at all times The patient care report (PCR) ensures: - ✔✔continuity of care Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the administration of ALS? A. a 53-year-old patient who is given glucagon for significant hypoglycemia Incorrect B. a 64-year-old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) Correct C. a 48-year-old patient whose airway is secured with a multilumen device Incorrect D. a 61-year-old trauma patient whose chest is decompressed with a needle Incorrect - ✔✔B. a 64-year- old cardiac arrest patient who is defibrillated with an automated external defibrillator (AED) A patient's refusal for EMS treatment and/or transport must be: - ✔✔an informed refusal Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence? - ✔✔deviation from the standard of care that may result in further injury Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment? - ✔✔A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT
While assisting an advanced life support (ALS) ambulance crew, you are accidentally stuck with an IV needle. You should: - ✔✔report the incident to your supervisor after the call A positive TB skin test indicates that: - ✔✔. you have been exposed to the disease. Communicating with hearing-impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT: - ✔✔. elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation. When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be: - ✔✔. brief and easily understood. f an action or procedure that was performed on a patient is not recorded on the written report: - ✔✔it was not performed in the eyes of the law. Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: - ✔✔not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons When you begin an oral report, you should state the patient's age, sex, and: - ✔✔chief complaint. The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the: - ✔✔medical director. Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication? - ✔✔. simplex According to Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, an employer must: - ✔✔offer a workplace environment that reduces the risk for exposure. which of the following errors is an example of a knowledge-based failure?
When faced with a situation in which a patient is in cardiac arrest, and a valid living will or DNR order cannot be located, you should: - ✔✔begin resuscitation at once. After delivering your patient to the hospital, you sit down to complete the PCR. When documenting the patient's last blood pressure reading, you inadvertently write 120/60 instead of 130/70. To correct this mistake, you should: - ✔✔draw a single horizontal line through the error, initial it, and write the correct data next to it. What section of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel? - ✔✔protecting patient privacy Typical components of an oral patient report include all of the following, EXCEPT: important medical history not previously given. B. the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. C. the chief complaint or mechanism of injury. D. the patient's response to treatment you provided. - ✔✔the set of baseline vital signs taken at the scene. Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by: A. maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. B. using medical terminology to ensure the patient understands. C. positioning yourself at a level that is higher than the patient. D. withholding unpleasant information until arrival at the hospital. - ✔✔maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible. General guidelines for effective radio communications include all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. acknowledging a transmission as soon as possible. B. holding the microphone about 2" to 3" from your mouth. C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality.
D. speaking in a clear, calm, monotone voice. - ✔✔C. using 10 codes to ensure radio traffic confidentiality. Why are prehospital emergency care guidelines updated on a regular basis? Choose one answer. A. Statistical data indicate that an increasing number of people are being diagnosed with a particular illness. B. The federal government requires that changes be made to existing emergency care protocols at least every 5 years. C. EMS providers should be encouraged to actively participate in research and become familiar with data analysis. D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. - ✔✔D. Additional information and evidence indicate that the effectiveness of certain interventions has changed. While trying to make a family member feel better after a loved one has died, your partner uses trite statements. The family members may view this as: Choose one answer. A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. B. a show of respect for the person who has died. C. your partner's caring and supportive attitude. D. coaching them through the grieving process. - ✔✔A. your partner's attempt to diminish their grief. Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts a posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) reaction? Choose one answer. A. An EMT is emotionally exhausted and depressed after a school bus crash involving critical injuries and the death of several children. B. An EMT with many years of field experience becomes irritable with her coworkers and experiences headaches and insomnia. C. An EMT becomes distracted at the scene of a motor vehicle crash involving the same type of car in which a child was previously killed.
An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: - ✔✔your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: Choose one answer. A. trachea. B. alveoli. C. epiglottis. D. bronchioles. - ✔✔C. epiglottis. The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: - ✔✔cervical spine injuries Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: - ✔✔incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood. 19 - year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: - ✔✔remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. Inhalation occurs when the - ✔✔diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: - ✔✔shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: Choose one answer. A. a respiratory infection. B. an overdose of aspirin.
C. high blood glucose levels. D. a narcotic overdose. - ✔✔a narcotic overdose You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: - ✔✔log roll him as a unit to a supine position. In what area of the lungs does respiration occur? - ✔✔alveoli Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of: - ✔✔stridor Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. larynx B. pharynx C. bronchus D. oropharynx - ✔✔C. bronchus In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. - ✔✔ 2 Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: - ✔✔you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient. Distributive shock occurs when: - ✔✔widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds. The two processes that occur during respiration are - ✔✔inspiration and expiration. Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is MOST correct?
C. prolonged seizures D. severe anxiety - ✔✔D. severe anxiety Syphilis is a: - ✔✔bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? Choose one answer. A. hypotension B. wheezing C. pallor D. dizziness - ✔✔wheezing Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? Choose one answer. A. substance abuse B. schizophrenia C. depression D. Alzheimer's disease - ✔✔A. substance abuse Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? Choose one answer. A. liver laceration B. repeated diarrhea C. severe vomiting D. excessive sweating - ✔✔liver laceration Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: - ✔✔psychogenic shock.
Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? Choose one answer. A. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. B. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. C. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. D. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. - ✔✔The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream. Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: - ✔✔adequate amounts of surfactant. Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? Choose one answer. A. tachycardia Incorrect B. anxiety Incorrect C. restlessness D. cyanosis - ✔✔cyanosis An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: Choose one answer. A. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs. B. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. C. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body.
as red blood cells begin to clumb together to form a clot,____reinforces the clumped red blood cells - ✔✔fibrinogen when assessing arm movement of a suspected stroke, you should - ✔✔expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patients side hypoperfusion is another name for - ✔✔shock activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested - ✔✔acids or alkalies anaphylaxis is mod accurately defines as an - ✔✔extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems what is not an assessment parameter included in the cincinati prehospital stroke scale - ✔✔memory what is not a function of the sympathetic nervous system? - ✔✔constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system, an absence seizure is also referred to as - ✔✔petit mal seizure which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure - ✔✔poisoning a raised swollen well defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bit or sting - ✔✔wheal status epileptics is characterized by - ✔✔prolonged seizures without return of consciousness a transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when - ✔✔the normal body process destroy a clot in a cerebral artery as woman approaches menopause - ✔✔her menstrul periods may become irregular and vary in severity
a young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. as your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control obvious bleeding then
pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is most suggestive of - ✔✔aortic aneurysm gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with - ✔✔hematemsis the inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all the following areas(kidney abdomen legs) except the - ✔✔brain approx 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occurring during - ✔✔lateral collisions in non trauma patients, an early indictor of internal bleeding is - ✔✔dizziness upon standing the systemic veins function by - ✔✔returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart injury to a hollow abdominal organ would most likely result in - ✔✔a leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients - ✔✔who have experienced a head injury the single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is - ✔✔depression which of the following met accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke - ✔✔blockage of a cerebral artery AED is the most advantageous to an EMT because - ✔✔it delivers prompt defillbilartion to patients in V- Fib you arrive at the home of a 50 year old female with severe epitaxis, as you treat her it is most important to recall - ✔✔the patient is at risk for vomitting and aspiration
two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are - ✔✔falls and motor vehicle collisions acute coronary syndrome is a term to describe - ✔✔a group of symptoms that are cause myocardial ischemia deoxygenated blood from the body returns to - ✔✔the right atrium what organ can tolerate inadequate profusion for up to 2 hours - ✔✔skeletal muscle if direct pressure with a sterile fails immediately to stop severe bleeding you should apply - ✔✔a tourniquet proximal to injury when assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavoir an emt should - ✔✔consider acute medical illness may be causing the patients behavior what is the major difference between AMI and angina pectoris - ✔✔anginal pain typically subsides with rest patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to drink because - ✔✔substances in the stomach increase risk for aspiration most patients with the abdominal pain prefer to - ✔✔lie on side with knees drawn in after applying pressure dressing to a laceration on a patients arm, you notice the blood is beginning to saturate, you should - ✔✔place additional dressings prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitrogen, the emt must - ✔✔obtain authorization by medical control assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will most likely reveal - ✔✔combativeness
the ability of cardiac muscle to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called - ✔✔automaticity heroin id an example of - ✔✔opiod common side effects of nitro include headache, bradycardia, hypotension except - ✔✔hypertension what is the function of the left atrium - ✔✔receives oxygenated blood from the lungs perfusion is most accurately defined as - ✔✔circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the bodes metabolic needs ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because - ✔✔the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood you and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle aged man who collapsed 5 mins ago. he is unresponsive, apenic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present but have not provided any care. you should - ✔✔perform 5 cycles of cpm and apply the aed early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include - ✔✔pain and distention which of the following medication blocks the release of histamines a. albuterol(ventolin) b. diphenhydramine(benadryl) c. acetametaphen(tylenol) d. epi - ✔✔B a poison that enters the body by__is the most difficult to treat - ✔✔injection
when caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecolgic emergency the emts main focus should be - ✔✔maintain abcs and transport without delay you respond to movie theater for a 70 year old male who is confused. he has type 2 diabetes and refuses to take his pills. he is diaphoretic tacky and tachypenic. initial management should include - ✔✔applying a nonrebreather mask at 15 L/m what vein is located inferior to the trunk - ✔✔saphenous the first indicator of non traumatic internal bleeding may be - ✔✔weakness or dizziness when evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car vs pedestrian you should first - ✔✔approximate the speed of the vehicle that souk the patient when using an auto inject, the primary inject site is the - ✔✔lateral portion of the thigh muscle control nd coordination are controlled by the cerebellum a dissecting aortic anerysm occurs when - ✔✔the inner layer of th aorta become separated when assessing an elderly patient who fell it is important to remember - ✔✔osteoporosis van cause a fracture that may have resulted from the fall the physical exam of sexual assault should - ✔✔limited to brief survey for life threatening events what about gonorrehea is correct - ✔✔painful urination is seen in both men and women you are dispatched to a 56 year old with ams, the patients wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before. he is semiconscious rapid and shallow respirations and therapy pulse you should - ✔✔begin ventilary assistance type 1 diabetes is - ✔✔a condition where the body makes no insulin