Epithelial tissue questions and answers, Exams of Biology

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HISTOLOGY, CYTOLOGY, AND EMBRYOLOGY:

TESTS WITH ANSWERS

1.CYTOLOGY

Directions : each of the following statements contains five suggested completions.

Choose the one that is best in each case.

1. Each of the following statements concerning the plasmalemma is true, EXCEPT: A – includes elementary cell membrane; B – its supermembranous layer consists of glycolipids and glycoproteins; C – its submembranous layer contains filaments and microtubules; D – is a semi-permeable cell boundary; E – is not an obligatory cell component. 2. The plasma membrane functions are as follows, EXCEPT: A – is a selectively permeable barrier; B – is the site for hormone receptors; C – provides cell-to-cell interaction; D – is the primary protein synthesis site; E – takes part in the active and passive transport. 3. Each of the following statements concerning the microvilli is true, EXCEPT: A – are plasmalemma projections; B – contain microtubules; C – amplify cell surface area; D – form the brush border of intestinal epithelium; E – contain microfilaments. 4. Each of the following statements concerning the cilia is true, EXCEPT: A – are plasmalemma projections; B – contain nine peripheral doublets and the central pair of microtubules; C – are not visible in light microscope; D – their basal bodies are similar to centrioles; E – are movable organelles. 5. The intercellular junction where ionic channels pierce the adjacent membranes is called: A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations. 6. The disk-shaped intercellular junction where a dense plaque with filaments is present on the cytoplasmic surface of each opposing plasma membrane is called: A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations. 7. The intercellular junction that blocks the substance access to the intercellular space is called: A – desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations. 8. Each of the following statements concerning the mitochondria is true, EXCEPT: A – have a double-membrane structure; B – its inner membrane infolds to form cristae; C – its matrix contains enzymes of Krebs’ cycle; D – its cristae contain enzymes of the electron-transport chain; E – are not able to produce ATP. 9. The cytoplasm basophilia is inherent in cells that: A – have cilia; B – accumulate lipids; C – actively synthesize proteins; D – accumulate glycogen; E – synthesize mucus. 10. The microfilaments are composed of the following proteins: A – actin; B – desmin; C – keratin; D – vimentin; E – integrin. 11. These filaments belong to the population of intermediate filaments, EXCEPT: A – tonofilaments; B – neurofilaments; C – actin filaments; D – glial filaments; E – desmin filaments. 12. Each of the following statements concerning the nuclear envelope structure is true, EXCEPT: A – consists of two membranes separated by the perinuclear space; B – contains nuclear pores providing communication between the nucleus and cytoplasm; C – its outer membrane is studded with ribosomes; D – its inner membrane has a fibrous lamina anchoring chromatin; E – its outer membrane is continuous with Golgi apparatus. 13. Each of the following statements concerning chromatin is true, EXCEPT: A – euchromatin is a lightly stained and dispersed; B – heterochromatin is a densely stained and condensed; C – heterochromatin takes part in transcription; D – two types of

27. The following statements regarding the centrioles are true: (1) exist as a pair of cylinder-like structures oriented at right angle to one another (2) each centriole has nine peripheral microtubule triplets but lacks the central pair (3) before cell division they replicate themselves by forming procentrioles (4) during cell division, separate and migrate to the cell poles 28. The cytoskeleton includes: (1) actin filaments (2) intermediate filaments (3) microtubules (4) centrioles 29. The following statements regarding the microtubule functions are true: (1) are parts of the cytoskeleton (2) form the mitotic spindle (3) take part in intracellular transport and cell movement (4) constitute cilia, flagella, and centrioles 30. The cells containing a lot of free ribosomes synthesize: (1) secretory proteins (2) cytosol proteins (3) cell membrane proteins (4) proteins for cell growth and differentiation 31. The following events take place in the G1 period of the mitotic interphase: (1) intense protein synthesis (2) DNA reduplication (3) daughter cell growth (4) self- replication of centrioles 32. The following events take place in the S period of the mitotic interphase: (1) DNA reduplication (2) daughter cell growth (3) self-replication of centrioles (4) intense energy production 33. The following events take place in the G2 period of the mitotic interphase: (1) intense energy production (2) ATP accumulation (3) intense tubulin synthesis (4) DNA reduplication 34. The following events take place in the mitotic prophase: (1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) nuclear envelope disorganization (4) centriole migration to the opposite cell poles 35. The following events take place in the mitotic metaphase: (1) chromosome condensation (2) chromosome assembling on the equatorial plate (3) nucleolus disappearance (4) the mitotic spindle formation 36. The following events take place in the mitotic anaphase: (1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) the mitotic spindle formation (4) movement of chromosomes to the opposite cell poles 37. The following events take place in the mitotic telophase: (1) chromosome decondensation (2) nuclear envelope restoration (3) nucleolus re- appearance (4) cytoplasm division 38.The absence of cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis) in mitosis results in: (1) cell death (2) generation of a subsequent mitosis (3) formation of haploid cell (4) formation of multinuclear cell

2. EPITHELIAL TISSUE

Directions : each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose the one that is best in each case.

1. Each of the following statements concerning the mesothelium is true, EXCEPT: A – is derived from mesoderm; B – is simple; C – its cells are squamous; D – not each of its cells reaches the lumen; E – lines the peritoneal cavity. 2. Each of the following statements concerning the pseudostratified epithelium is true, EXCEPT: A – all its cells rest on the basement membrane; B – all its cells reach the apical surface; C – contains goblet cells; D – is ciliated; E – contains short (basal) cells.

3. Each of the following statements concerning the basement membrane is true, EXCEPT: A – separates epithelium from the underlying connective tissue; B – is absent in some epithelia; C – contains type lV collagen and laminin; D – serves for epithelial cell attachment; E – takes part in nutrition of epithelium. 4. The cardinal features of the epithelia are as follows, EXCEPT: A – form the stroma of organs; B – look like sheets; C – are derived from all germ layers; D – regenerate intensively; E– their cells are polarized. 5. The epithelia are simple if: A – their cells are polarized; B – their cells form sheets; C – all their cells rest on the basement membrane; D – not all their cells reach the apical surface; E – their cells are continuously sloughed. 6. The epithelia are stratified if: A – their cells are continuously sloughed; B – their cells form sheets; C – their cells are polarized; D – all their cells can divide; E – not all their cells are in contact with the basement membrane. 7. Each of the following statements concerning the stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium is true, EXCEPT: A – contains the spinulate cell layer; B – contains the basal layer with stem cells; C – contains the superficial layer of flat anucleate cells; D – its superficial cells are continuously sloughed; E – lines the oral cavity, the esophagus, the rectum, and the vagina. 8. Each of the following statements concerning the stratified transitional epithelium is true, EXCEPT: A – is capable of keratinization; B – consists of the basal, intermediate, and superficial layers; C – changes the number of its layers, depending on the degree of stretching; D – its superficial cells are dome-shaped; E – lines the urinary system organs. 9. The criteria of the exocrine gland classification are as follows, EXCEPT: A – branching of the duct; B – the number of secretory portions; C – the shape of secretory portions; D – contact of cells with the basement membrane; E – the mode of secretion. 10. Each of the following statements concerning a compound branched tubuloalveolar gland is true, EXCEPT: A – its duct branches; B – its secretory portions are numerous; C – it has one secretory portion; D – its secretory portions may be flask-like; E – its secretory portions may be tube- like.

Directions : one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and 4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.

11. The following characteristics of the epithelia are true: (1) line internal and cover external body surfaces (2) are avascular (3) rest on the basement membrane (4) abound in the extracellular substance 12. The following statements regarding the stratified squamous keratinized epithelium are true: (1) its basement membrane is sinuous (2) covers the skin (3) its basal layer contains stem cells (4) its superficial cells are flat and anucleate 13. The stratified squamous keratinized epithelium from the thin skin in comparison with the same epithelium from the thick skin is characterized by the following: (1) lacks the stratum lucidum (2) contains the poor-developed stratum granulosum (3) contains the thin stratum corneum (4) lacks the stratum spinosum 14. The epithelia are specialized for the following functions:

A – comprise 0.5-1% of all leukocytes; B – their nuclei are masked by granules; C – their specific granules stain metachromatically; D – their granules contain heparin and histamine; E – they are macrophage precursors.

8. Each of the following statements concerning the monocytes is true, EXCEPT: A – are the largest circulating blood cells; B – have kidney-shaped nuclei; C – contain specific granules; D – contain azurophilic granules; E – comprise 6-8% of all leukocytes. 9. The following blood cells are direct macrophage precursors: A – lymphocytes; B – basophils; C – eosinophils; D – monocytes; E – neutrophils. 10. Each of the following statements concerning the lymphocytes is true, EXCEPT: A – are small, medium-sized, and large; B – comprise 60-70% of all leukocytes; C – have large round nuclei; D – have narrow rims of the light blue cytoplasm; E – are divided into T and B lymphocytes. 11. The blood cells responsible for humoral immunity and converting to plasma cells are as follows: A – T lymphocytes; B – basophils; C – monocytes; D – neutrophils; E – B lymphocytes. 12. The blood cells primarily responsible for cell-mediated immunity are as follows: A – T lymphocytes; B – eosinophils; C – B lymphocytes; D – basophils; E – neutrophils.

Directions : one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and 4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.

13. The following statements regarding the reticulocytes are true: (1) are immature red blood cells (2) contain reticular clusters of ribosomes (3) comprise about 1% of all erythrocytes (4) increase in number in cases of bleeding or hemolysis 14. The erythrocyte functions are as follows: (1) oxygen transport (2) blood coagulation (3) carbon dioxide transport (4) phagocytosis of bacteria 15. The platelet functions are as follows: (1) gas transport (2) blood coagulation (3) phagocytosis of bacteria (4) clotting 16. In embryogenesis blood originates from: (1) mesoderm (2) ectoderm (3) endoderm (4) mesenchyme 17. The neutrophil functions are as follows: (1) histamine inactivation (2) release of histamine (3) macrophagocytosis (4) phagocytosis and destruction of bacteria 18. The eosinophil functions are as follows:

1. histamine inactivation (2) release of histamine (3) inactivation and killing of parasitic agents (4) secretion of immunoglobulins 19. The following statements regarding the eosinophils are true: (1) their nuclei have 2-3 lobes (2) lack primary granules (3) their specific granules contain the crystalline core (4) comprise 20-30% of all leukocytes 20. The pathological processes causing an increase in the number of blood eosinophils are as follows: (1) bleeding (2) allergic reactions (3) hemolytic diseases (4) parasite invasion 21. Agranulocytes include the following leukocytes: (1) lymphocytes (2) basophils (3) monocytes (4) eosinophils 22. Granulocytes include the following leukocytes: (1) neutrophils (2) basophils (3) eosinophils (4) monocytes 23. The key cells of the immune system are the following blood formed elements: (1) T lymphocytes (2) neutrophils (3) B lymphocytes (4) basophils 24. Lymphocytes are classified into T and B types according to: (1) surface determinants (2) ultrastructure (3) site of differentiation (4) shape

4. CONNECTIVE TISSUE

Directions : each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose the one that is best in each case.

1. The connective tissue functions are as follows, EXCEPT: A – exchange between a body and the environment; B – immune and phagocytic defence; C – exchange between blood and tissues; D – support; E – repair. 2. Each of the following statements concerning the loose connective tissue is true, EXCEPT: A – contains relatively fewer fibres, but more amorphous ground substance; B – its fibres are arranged in parallel bundles; C – contains various cells; D – is located under epithelia and around blood vessels; E – is mainly specialized for the transport function. 3. Each of the following statements concerning the fibroblasts is true, EXCEPT: A – include fibroclasts, myofibroblasts, and fibrocytes; B – are predominant cells in connective tissues; C – contain granules with heparin and histamine; D – contain well- developed rER and Golgi apparatus; E – manufacture the extracellular matrix precursors. 4. Each of the following statements concerning the macrophages is true, EXCEPT: A – arise from blood monocytes; B – contain numerous primary and secondary lysosomes; C – belong to the mononuclear phagocyte system; D – have variable shape, because they move in connective tissues; E – manufacture antibodies. 5. Each of the following statements concerning the mast cells is true, EXCEPT: A – abound in metachromatic granules; B – contain heparin and histamine; C – are located near the blood vessels; D – manufacture collagen precursors; E – are involved in inflammatory and anaphylactic reactions. 6. Each of the following statements concerning the plasma cells is true, EXCEPT: A – manufacture collagen fibres; B – arise from activated B lymphocytes; C – are ovoid in shape; D – have acentric nuclei; E – contain a lot of rER. 7. Each of the following statements concerning the white adipose cells is true, EXCEPT: A – have a thin rim of cytoplasm; B – contain numerous mitochondria; C – possess flattened nuclei; D – contain a single fat drop; E – are responsible for the fat storage. 8. Each of the following statements concerning the brown adipose cells is true, EXCEPT: A – generate heat; B – contain numerous mitochondria; C – have round active nuclei; D – contain many small fat droplets; E – their narrow cytoplasm possesses few organelles. 9. Each of the following statements concerning the reticular connective tissue is true, EXCEPT: A – forms the stroma of hemopoietic organs; B – consists of reticular cells and reticular fibres; C – is the embryonic connective tissue; D – its fibres are argyrophilic; E – creates the microenvironment for hemopoietic cells. 10. Each of the following statements concerning the mucous connective tissue is true, EXCEPT: A – is the embryonic connective tissue; B – is located in the umbilical cord; C – contains a jelly-like matrix; D – generates heat in infants; E – is specialized for amortization. 11. In embryogenesis the all types of connective tissue originate from: A – neural tube; B – mesenchyme; C – ectoderm; D – endoderm; E – notochord. 12. Specialized connective tissues are as follows, EXCEPT: A – mucous tissue; B – reticular tissue; C – dense regular tissue; D – white adipose tissue; E – brown adipose tissue.

2. Each of the following statements concerning the hyaline cartilage matrix is true, EXCEPT: A – is firm and pliable; B – abounds in elastic fibres; C – contains type II collagen fibrils; D

• is highly permeable; E – is impermeable for immunoglobulins. 3. Each of the following statements concerning the perichondrium is true, EXCEPT: A – provides nutrition for cartilages; B – its outer layer is fibrous; C – its inner layer is cellular; D – is avascular; E – provides appositional growth of cartilages. 4. Each of the following statements regarding the chondroblasts is true, EXCEPT: A – originate from chondrogenic cells; B – are located in the inner perichondrium layer; C – are arranged in isogenous groups; D – synthesize the cartilage matrix; E – are capable of division. 5. Each of the following statements regarding the chondrocytes is true, EXCEPT: A – arise from chondroblasts; B – can form isogenous groups; C – are capable of division; D – take part in the cartilage matrix synthesis; E – are located in the inner perichondrium layer. 6. Each of the following statements concerning the periosteum is true, EXCEPT: A – contains osteocytes; B – is composed of fibrous and cellular layers; C – contains osteogenic cells and osteoblasts; D – provides blood supply to bones; E – provides growth and repair of bones. 7. Each of the following statements concerning the osteoblasts is true, EXCEPT: A – are derived from osteogenic cells; B – are located in the inner periosteum layer; C – produce the organic portion of bone matrix; D – possess the ruffled border; E – contain well-developed rER and Golgi apparatus. 8. Each of the following statements concerning the osteocytes is true, EXCEPT: A – produce the organic portion of bone matrix; B – differentiate from osteoblasts; C – house in their own lacunae; D – possess narrow cytoplasmic processes; E – maintain bone homeostasis; 9. Each of the following statements concerning the osteoclasts is true, EXCEPT: A – are multinucleated giant cells; B – are located near the blood vessels; C – have the ruffled border; D – possess osteolytic activity; E – are derived from osteocytes. 10. Each of the following statements concerning the coarsely bundled bone tissue is true, EXCEPT: A – is a primary immature bone tissue; B – contains thick bundles of collagen fibrils; C – occurs mostly in adult body; D – is replaced by lamellar bone tissue; E – is located near the skull sutures, in tooth sockets, and at insertion sites of tendons. 11. Each of the following statements concerning the osteon is true, EXCEPT: A – is a morphostructural unit of the compact bone substance; B – is composed of 4- concentric lamellae; C – contains a central canal; D – is avascular; E – contains osteocytes in lacunae between lamellae. 12. The bone tissue embryonic origin is: A – notochord; B – mesenchyme; C – ectoderm; D – endoderm; E – neural crest. 13. In contrast to the perichondral bone, the endochondral bone contains: A – residues of calcified cartilage; B – bone matrix; C – osteoblasts; D – osteocytes; E – osteoclasts. 14. The epiphyseal plate function is: A – formation of the perichondral collar; B – formation of periosteal buds; C – formation of the cartilage model; D – calcification of the bone matrix; E – bone growth.

Directions : one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and 4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.

15. The following characteristics of the perichondrium are true:

(1) surrounds cartilages, except articular surfaces (2) consists of two layers (3) is a connective tissue envelope of cartilages (4) contains blood vessels, chondrogenic cells, and chondroblasts

16. The following characteristics of the hyaline cartilage are true: (1) lacks blood vessels (2) contains zones of young cartilage and mature cartilage (3) undergoes age-related regressive changes (4) its matrix can become mineralized 17. The cartilages grow: (1) not at all (2) only interstitially (3) only appositionally (4) interstitially and appositionally 18. The following statements regarding the elastic cartilage are true: (1) is found in the auricle, the auditory tube, and the epiglottis (2) abounds in elastic fibres (3) never undergoes calcification (4) lacks the perichondrium 19. The following statements regarding the fibrocartilage are true: (1) its collagen fibres are arranged in parallel bundles (2) exists in intervertabral disks (3) is found at the junction sites between tendons and articular cartilage (4) lacks the perichondrium 20. The following statements regarding the bone matrix are true: (1) prevents free diffusion (2) contains type I collagen (3) contains calcium, phosphorus, and bicarbonate (4) abounds in elastic fibres 21. The following statements regarding the lamellar bone tissue are true: (1) replaces primary bone (2) is immature bone tissue (3) forms spongy and compact bone substance (4) its collagen fibres are arranged in coarse bundles 22. The following statements regarding the bone spongy substance are true: (1) is found in the epiphysises of long bones (2) its lamellae are irregularly arranged (3) contains bone marrow (4) contains osteons 23. The following statements regarding the bone compact substance are true: (1) is found in the diaphysis of long bones, in flat and short bones (2) is avascular (3) its lamellae are arranged in osteons (4) contains bone marrow 24. Haversian canal contains: (1) blood vessels (2) nerves (3) some loose connective tissue 4) few osteoblasts and osteoclasts 25. The following statements regarding the intramembranous bone formation are true:

1. is direct bone formation (2) is characteristic of long bone development (3) is characteristic of flat bone development (4) is indirect bone formation 26. The endochondral bone formation begins in: (1) the epiphysis of the cartilage model (2) epiphyseal plates (3) mineralized cartilage (4) the perichondrium of the cartilage model diaphysis 27. The following structures are formed in the endochondral bone formation: (1) endochondral bone (2) perichondral bone (3) periosteal buds (4) epiphyseal plates 28. The following structures make up the arrangement of the long bone diaphysis: (1) osteons (2) outer circumferential lamellae (3) interstitial lamellae (4) inner circumferential lamellae

6. MUSCLE TISSUE

Directions : each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose the one that is best in each case.

1. Each of the following statements concerning the skeletal muscle tissue is true, EXCEPT:

14. Each of the following statements concerning striated myofibrils is true, EXCEPT: A – I band contains only thin filaments; B – thin filaments anchor at Z line; C – A band contains both thin and thick filaments in 6 to 1 ratio; D – M line is formed by the midpoints of thick filaments; E – H zone contains only thin filaments.

Directions : one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and 4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.

15. The characteristics of the skeletal muscle as an organ are true: (1) is formed of striated fibres (2) contains the endomisium (3) contains the perimysium (4) contains the epymysium 16. The following statements regarding a sarcomere are true: (1) is a distance between two successive Z lines (2) is a functional unit of striated myofibrils (3) is similarly arranged in skeletal tissue and cardiac muscle (4) includes 0.5 of I band + A band + 0.5 of I band 17. The cross striation of muscle fibres is due to: (1) cross disposition of myofibrils (2) the presence of dark and light bands (3) the presence of many nuclei (4) alternation of dark and light bands 18. The following statements regarding the atypical cardiac muscle cells are true: (1) contain few myofibrils (2) contain many glycogen granules (3) contain few mitochondria (4) make up the heart impulse-generating system 19. The following statements regarding the repair of skeletal muscle fibres are true: (1) satellite cells divide (2) myoblasts arise from satellite cells (3) myoblasts fuse to form myotubes (4) myotubes differentiate to muscle fibres 20. The following statements regarding the satellite cells of the skeletal muscle tissue are true: (1) are stem cells (2) exist in G 0 phase (3) take part in muscle repair (4) are located between the basement membrane and the muscle fibre plasmalemma 21. The following statements regarding the T tubules of striated muscle fibres are true: (1) are plasmalemma invaginations (2) take part in the release of calcium ions (3) are located between adjacent terminal cisterns (4) take part in the diad formation 22. The intercalated disks of the cardiac muscle cells have the following specializations: (1) sites of myofibril attachment (2) desmosomes (3) interdigitations (4) gap junctions 23. The following statements regarding the smooth muscle cells are true: (1) are fusiform (2) contact by gap junctions (3) produce reticular fibrils (4) lack sarcolemmal vesicles 24. The following statements regarding the cytoplasmic and peripheral densities of the smooth muscle cells are true: (1) are analogous to Z lines (2) contain α-actinin (3) function as myofilament attachment sites (4) facilitate the spread of excitation 25. The following statements regarding the sarcolemmal vesicles (caveolae) of the smooth muscle cells are true: (1) are present along the periphery of the cell cytoplasm (2) are associated with sER (3) are associated with the cell membrane (4) function to take up and release calcium ions 26. The following statements regarding the smooth muscle tissue regeneration are true: (1) smooth muscle cells can divide (2) minor wounds heal by new smooth muscle cells (3) large defects are closed by connective tissue (4) regeneration is not possible at all. 27. The following statements regarding the cardiac muscle tissue regeneration are true:

(1) cardiac muscle cells can divide (2) the cardiac muscle lacks capacity for reparative regeneration (3) minor wounds heal by new muscle cell production (4) any defect is closed by connective tissue scar

7. NERVOUS TISSUE

Directions : each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose the one that is best in each case.

1. The following organelles are plentiful in the neuron cytoplasm, EXCEPT: A – Golgi apparatus; B – mitochondria; C – microtubules and microfilaments; D – centrioles; E – rER. 2. Nissl bodies seen by light microscopy as basophilic clumps are: A – sER; B – Golgi apparatus; C – mitochondria; D – microtubules; E – rosettes of polysomes and rER. 3. The neurofibrils seen by light microscopy are the fixation artefact and represent aggregated : A – mitochondria; B – Golgi apparatus; C – microtubules and microfilaments; D – rER; E – sER. 4. Each of the following statements concerning the axon is true, EXCEPT: A – lacks rER and polysomes; B – lacks mitochondria; C – contains many microtubules; D

• demonstrates axonal transport; E – conducts impulses away from the soma. 5. Each of the following statements concerning the synapses is true, EXCEPT: A – transfer impulses from one neuron to another; B – are chemical and electrical; C – interact with stimuli and generate nervous impulses; D – are axodendritic, axosomatic, and axoaxonic; E – may be exciting and inhibitory. 6. Each of the following statements concerning the chemical synapse is true, EXCEPT: A – its presynapse contains vesicles with a neurotransmitter; B – its presynaptic membrane is thickened; C – its postsynaptic membrane has receptors; D – has a synaptic cleft; E – lacks glial cells. 7. The following glial cells belong to the macroglia, EXCEPT: A – oligodendrocytes; B – protoplasmic astrocytes; C – glial microphagocytes; D – fibrous astrocytes; E – ependymal cells. 8. The glial cells arising from the blood monocytes are: A – microglia; B – oligodendrocytes; C – protoplasmic astrocytes; D – fibrous astrocytes; E
• ependymal cells. 9. The glial cells lining the brain ventricles and the spinal canal are: A – microglia; B – oligodendrocytes; C – protoplasmic astrocytes; D – fibrous astrocytes; E
• ependymal cells. 10. The glial cells forming sheaths around neuronal processes in the nerve fibres are: A – protoplasmic astrocytes; B – fibrous astrocytes; C – microglia; D – oligodendrocytes (lemmocytes); E – ependymal cells. 11. Each of the following statements concerning the myelinated fibres is true, EXCEPT: A – their outer sheath is neurilemma; B – contain several axis cylinders; C – their inner sheath is myelinated; D – conduct impulses at a rate of 80 to120 m/s; E – possess nodes of Ranvier. 12. Each of the following statements concerning the myelinated sheath is true, EXCEPT:

(1) is the site between adjacent Schwann cells (2) is a myelin portion where the lemmocyte cytoplasm is preserved (3) provides saltatory conduction of impulses (4) is nutrition canal

28. The following statements regarding the motor end plate are true: (1) contains acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter (2) is formed by ending of the motor neuron axon (3) exists on skeletal muscle fibres (4) contains glial cells

8. NERVOUS SYSTEM

Directions : each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose the one that is best in each case.

1. Each of the following statements concerning the spinal ganglion is true, EXCEPT: A – contains pseudounipolar neurons; B – is associated with the spinal cord ventral root; C

• its neuron dendrites form part of the spinal nerve; D – its neuron dendrites possess receptors; E – its neurons are surrounded by satellite cells. 2. The dorsal root of the spinal cord is formed by: A – the axons of motor neurons of the spinal cord; B – the dendrites of neurons of spinal ganglia; C – the dendrites of motor neurons of the spinal cord; D – the axons of neurons of spinal ganglia; E – the axons of interneurons of the spinal cord. 3. Each of the following statements concerning the autonomic ganglia is true, EXCEPT: A – contain multipolar neurons; B – the axons of their neurons are unmyelinated; C – the axons of their neurons end on skeletal muscles; D – contain oligodendrocytes; E – preganglionic fibres form synapses on their neurons. 4. The gray matter of the spinal cord consists of the following structures, EXCEPT: A – connective tissue trabeculae; B – multipolar neurons; C – astrocytes; D – oligodendrocytes; E – microglia. 5. The white matter of the spinal cord consists of the following structures, EXCEPT: A – astrocytes; B – microglia; C – myelinated fibres; D – multipolar neurons; E – oligodendrocytes. 6. Each of the following statements concerning the cerebellar cortex is true, EXCEPT: A – its molecular layer contains stellate and basket cells; B – lacks blood vessels; C – its granular layer contains granule cells and Golgi type II cells; D – its middle layer contains Purkinje cells; E – contains protoplasmic astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia. 7. Each of the following statements concerning Purkinje cells from the cerebellar cortex is true, EXCEPT: A – are located in single layer; B – their dendrites arborize in the molecular layer; C – their axons enter the white matter; D – are inhibitory neurons; E – conduct impulses away from the cortex. 8. The cerebellar cortex neurons exciting Purkinje cells are: A – granule cells; B – basket cells; C – Golgi type II cells; D – stellate cells; E – pyramidal cells. 9. The cerebellar cortex neurons connecting Purkinje cells along a folium are: A – basket cells; B – pyramidal cells; C – stellate cells; D – Golgi type II cells; E – granule cells. 10. The cerebellum white matter contains the following structures, EXCEPT: A – mossy afferent fibres; B – climbing afferent fibres; C – efferent fibres (axons of Purkinje cells); D – glial cells; E – ependymal cells. 11. The mossy afferent fibres enter the cerebellar cortex and synapse with the dendrites of:

A – basket cells; B – Purkinje cells; C – stellate cells; D – granule cells; E – Golgi type II cells.

12. The climbing afferent fibres enter the cerebellar cortex and synapse with the dendrites of: A – basket cells; B – Purkinje cells; C – stellate cells; D – granule cells; E – Golgi type II cells. 13. Each of the following statements concerning efferent fibres of the cerebral cortex is true, EXCEPT: A – are the axons of pyramidal cells from the 3rd and the 5th layers; B – convey impulses to the cortex; C – may end in the same hemisphere; D – may end in the other hemisphere; E – may leave the brain and enter the spinal cord. 14. Each of the following statements concerning afferent fibres of the cerebral cortex is true, EXCEPT: A – convey impulses to the cortex; B – end and branch in the 1st and the 3rd layers; C – carry impulses away from the cortex; D – form transversal plexuses; E – synapse with cortex interneurons.

Directions : one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and 4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct..

15. The peripheral nerves are composed of:

1. nerve fibres (2) epineurium (3) perineurium (4) endoneurium 16. The ventral root of the spinal cord is formed by: (1) the axons of motor neurons of the spinal cord (2) the axons of sensory neurons of spinal ganglia (3) the axons of autonomic interneurons of the spinal cord (4) the dendrites of sensory neurons of spinal ganglia 17. The following statements regarding the spinal cord neurons are true: (1) are multipolar (2) are motor and associative (3) their axons may leave the spinal cord through the ventral root (4) their axons may extend from the gray matter into the white matter 18. The white matter of the spinal cord is formed by axons of neurons from: (1) spinal cord (2) spinal ganglia (3) brain (4) autonomic ganglia 19. The following statements regarding the gray matter of the spinal cord are true: (1) its anterior horns contain motor somatic neurons (2) its posterior horns contain interneurons for sensory impulses (3) its lateral horns contain autonomic interneurons (4) its commussure contains the central canal 20. The following statements regarding the white matter of the spinal cord are true: (1) its posterior columns contain ascending sensory tracts (2) its anterior columns contain mainly descending motor tract (3) its lateral columns contain both ascending and descending tracts (4) its blood vessels extend from the spinal cord pia mater 21. The cerebellar cortex is composed of the following layers: (1) molecular (2) of Purkinje cells (3) granular (4) pyramidal 22. The cerebellar cortex neurons connecting Purkinje cells across a folium are: (1) granule cells (2) stellate cells (3) Golgi type II cells (4) basket cells 23. The cerebellar cortex neurons inhibiting Purkinje cells are: (1) stellate cells (2) basket cells (3) Golgi type II cells (4) granule cells 24. The following statements regarding the cerebellar islands are true: (1) are located in the granular layer of the cortex (2) contain synapses between mossy fibres and granule cell dendrites (3) contain synapses of Golgi type II cell axons with granule cell dendrites (4) contain Purkinje cell axons 25. The cerebral cortex includes the following layers: (1) molecular (2) external granular (3) external pyramidal (4) layer of Purkinje cells

10. The retinal optic nerve fibre layer contains the axons of neurons: A – amacrine; B – ganglion; C – bipolar; D – horizontal; E – photoreceptor. 11. The optic nerve is composed of: A – photoreceptor dendrites; B – bipolar cell axons; C – amacrine cell dendrites; D – ganglion cell axons; E – horizontal cell axons. 12. The retinal external and internal limiting membranes are formed by the processes of: A – glial cells; B – photoreceptors; C – amacrine cells; D – ganglion cells; E – horizontal cells. 13. Each of the following statements concerning the pigmented epithelium is true, EXCEPT: A – consists of columnar cells; B – its cells have processes investing the outer segments of photoreceptors; C – contains melanin granules; D – contains the photosensitive pigment; E – is the outermost retinal layer. 14. Each of the following statements concerning the pigmented epithelium functions is true, EXCEPT: A – transports vitamin A and nutrients from the choroid; B – phagocytoses shed tips of rods and cones; C – absorbs light; D – takes part in light adaptation; E – transmits nervous impulses. 15. Each of the following statements concerning the olfactory cells is true, EXCEPT: A – are bipolar neurons; B – their dendrites are characterized by bulbous projections; C – the cilia extend from their olfactory knobs; D – they are mechanoreceptors; E – their unmyelinated axons are gathered into the fila olfactoria.

Directions : one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the answer: A – if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and 4 are correct; D – if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.

16. The following statements regarding the sclera are true: (1) consists of dense connective tissue (2) maintains the eye shape (3) serves as the attachment site for oculomotor muscles (4) is transparent 17. The following statements regarding the aqueous humor are true: (1) is produced by ciliary processes (2) flows from the posterior eye chamber into the anterior eye chamber (3) outflows via the canal of Schlemm into the eye venous system (4) is related to glaucoma 18. The following statements regarding the eye limbus are true: (1) contains the canal of Schlemm (2) is corneal-scleral junction (3) its blood vessels provide corneal nutrition (4) contains muscles of accommodation 19. The following statements regarding the choroid are true: (1) consists of loose connective tissue (2) is highly vascular (3) contains numerous melanocytes (4) absorbs light 20. The following statements regarding the lens are true: (1) is an epithelial structure (2) possesses its own capsule (3) consists of transparent fibres (4) is biconvex 21. The following statements regarding the vitreous body are true: (1) is refractile gel (2) contains few hyalocytes (3) is composed of water, collagen, and hyaluronic acid (4) takes part in accommodation 22. The following statements regarding the photoreceptors are true: (1) their inner segments are cell metabolic centres (2) their tips are shed and phagocytosed (3) their outer segments face the back of the eye (4) their axons synapse with horizontal cells and bipolar neurons 23. The following neurons of the retina constitute the initial link of the optic tract: (1) photoreceptors (2) bipolar cells (3) ganglion cells (4) amacrine cells

24. The following neurons form horizontal bonds within the retinal layers: (1) Muller cells (2) horizontal cells (3) bipolar cells (4) amacrine cells 25. The retinal layer of rods and cones consists of: (1) photoreceptor dendrites (2) cell bodies of rods and cones (3) pigmented epithelium processes (4) axons of rods and cones 26. The retinal outer plexiform layer contains: (1) photoreceptor axons (2) bipolar cell dendrites (3) horizontal cell processes (4) the first synapse of the optic tract 27. The retinal inner plexiform layer contains: (1) bipolar cell axons (2) ganglion cell dendrites (3) the second synapse of the optic tract (4) amacrine cell processes 28. The following statements regarding the optic disk are true: (1) lacks rods and cones (2) the optic nerve leaves the eye here (3) lacks visual activity (4) contains only two retinal layers 29. The following statements regarding the fovea centralis are true: (1) is a depression on the posterior retinal wall (2) contains only cones (3) is a region of the greatest visual activity (4) the optic nerve leaves the eye here 30. The olfactory epithelium consists of the following cells: (1) olfactory cells (2) basal cells (3) supporting cells (4) glial cells 31. The following statements regarding the olfactory reception are true: (1) olfactory cilia contain chemoreceptors (2) odoriferous substances dissolve in the olfactory gland secretion (3) interaction between the olfactory molecules and receptors causes the cell membrane depolarization (4) after interaction molecules are carried away by olfactory gland secretion to prepare receptors for new stimuli

10. SECONDARY SENTIENT SENSE ORGANS

Directions : each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose the one that is best in each case.

1. Each of the following statements concerning the cochlea is true, EXCEPT: A – is formed by a spiral bony tube; B – contains the osseous core, modiolus; C – consists of the saccule and utricle; D – houses the cochlear duct; E – contains the spiral organ of Corti. 2. The spiral ganglion is located in: A – scala media; B – spiral lamina of the modiolus; C – scala vestibuli; D – tunnel; E – scala tympani. 3. The sensory neurons of the organ of hearing are located in: A – stria vascularis; B – spiral ligament; C – tunnel; D – spiral ganglion; E – spiral organ. 4. Each of the following statements concerning the basilar membrane is true, EXCEPT: A – separates the scala media and the scala vestibuli; B – consists of a thick layer of amorphous material; C – contains keratin-like fibrils; D – the spiral organ is located on its upper surface; E – separates the scala media and the scala tympani. 5. Each of the following statements concerning the stria vascularis is true, EXCEPT: A – secrets endolymph; B – rests on the spiral ligament; C – consists of the psuedostratified epithelium; D – is vascularized by capillaries; E – is a thickened periosteum of the spiral lamina. 6. The following cells of the spiral organ enclose the tunnel of Corti: A – outer hair cells; B – outer phalangeal cells; C – pillar cells; D – inner hair cells; E – inner phalangeal cells.