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- Under which of the following conditions, the UPSC can serve the needs of a state?
- When requested by the President
- When requested by the Governor
- With the approval of Parliament
- With the approval of President
- With the approval of the concerned sate legislature.
A. 2 and 4 B. 2 and 5 C. 1 and 5 D. 1 and 3 Ans: A
- Assertion: The Chief Minister is the channel of communication between the Governor and the council of ministers. Reason: The Chief Minister is the head of the state council of ministers. Select the correct code: A. A is false but R is true. B. A is true but R is false. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Ans: D
- The incorrect statements about Central Vigilance Commission are:
- It was set up on the recommendations of Administrative Reforms Commission.
- It is headed by the Central Vigilance Commissioner appointed by the Prime Minister.
- Its functions, in certain cases, overlap with the functions of the UPSC.
- It is certainly a substitute for an Ombudsman.
- It receives complaints directly from aggrieved persons. A. 1, 4 and 5 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 3, 4 and 5 Ans: C
- Which of the following is not a department under the Ministry of Home Affairs? A. Department of Law and Order B. Department of Home C. Department of Internal Security D. Department of States
Ans: A
- Constitutional safeguards to civil servants are ensured by: A. Art. 311 B. Art. 312 C. Art. 315 D. Art. 310 Ans: A
- The features of Indian federal system are:
- Division of powers
- Separation of powers
- Independent judiciary
- Leadership of the Prime Minister
- A written Constitution
A. 1, 2 and 5 B. 1, 4 and 5 C. 2, 3 and 5 D. 1, 3 and 5 Ans: D
- The features of Indian parliamentary system are:
- Independent judiciary.
- Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
- A written Constitution.
- Presence of de jure and de facto executives.
- Individual responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 2, 3 and 4 Ans: C
- Money bill can be introduced in the state legislature only on the recommendation of: A. Governor B. Chief Minister C. Speaker D. Finance Minister Ans: A
- Which of the following statements are correct?
- The Constitution does not fix the number of members of the UPSC.
- One-half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office under the Government of India or of a state atleast for five years.
- The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for a term of five years or until they attain the age of 60 years.
- The salaries and allowances of the members of the UPSC are determined by the Parliament.
- The entire expanses of UPSC are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
A. 1 and 5 B. 1, 4 and 5 C. 2, 4 and 5 D. 2, 3 and 4 Ans: A
- Which of the following statements are correct about the difference between a censure motion and a no-confidence motion? 1. A censure motion should state the reasons for its adoption whereas a no-confidence motion need not state the reasons for its adoption.
- A no-confidence motion can be moved only against the council of ministers, whereas a censure motion can be moved against the council of ministers or an individual minister or a group of ministers.
- The Government must resign if a no- confidence motion is passed, whereas the Government need not resign if a censure motion is passed.
- A censure motion can be moved in both, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, whereas no- confidence motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4 Ans: A
- Assertion: Lord Ripon's Resolution of 1882 was hailed as the 'Magna Carta' of local government. Reason: Lord Ripon is regarded as the 'father of local self-government in India.' Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. A is false but R is true.
B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: C
- Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?
- Finance Commission
- NITI Aayog
- Zonal Councils
- National Development Council
- Election Commission
- University Grants Commission
A. 1, 3, 5 and 6 B. 1 and 5 C. 1, 2, 5 and 6 D. 1, 3 and 5 Ans: B
- Article 154 states that the Governor can exercise his executive authority either directly or through officers subordinate to him. The word subordinates includes: A. All the ministers except the Chief Minister B. Only the Cabinet Ministers C. Only the Chief Minister and the Deputy Chief Minister D. All the ministers and the Chief Minister Ans: D
- In which of the following respects, the Finance Commission differed from the erstwhile Planning Commission?
- Legal status
- Composition
- Tenure
- Form of organisation
- Functions
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 B. 1, 2, 4 and 5 C. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2 and 5 Ans: A
- Which of the following acts introduced the principle of election in India? A. Indian Councils Act of 1909
A. Part I of the Constitution B. Part IV-A of the Constitution C. Part IV of the Constitution D. Part III of the Constitution Ans: C
- Assertion: The Prime Minister's Office influences the formulation of plans. Reason: The PM is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog Select the correct code: A. A is true but R is false. B. A is false but R is true. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. Ans: C
- The term 'Cabinet' is mentioned in which of the following articles of the Constitution? A. Not mentioned in the Constitution B. Article 75 C. Article 74 D. Article 352 Ans: D
- Assertion: The budget makes a distinction between the expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund ofIndia and the expenditure 'made' from the Consolidated Fund of India. Reason: The expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. B. A is true but R is false. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. D. A is false but R is true. Ans: C
- Assertion: The salaries and allowances of members of the UPSC are charged on the consolidated Fund of India. Reason: Under the provisions of the Constitution, additional functions may be conferred on the Commission by President. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below
A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true. Ans: C
- The Indian federation is based on the pattern of: A. USA B. Switzerland C. Russia D. Canada Ans: D
- Which of the following is not correct about a cantonment board? A. It works under the administrative control of the Union Defence Ministry. B. It is established for municipal administration for civilian population inthe cantonment area. C. It is created by an executive resolution. D. It is a statutory body. Ans: C
- Assertion: The expenditure 'charged' on the Consolidated Fund of India is not subject to the vote of Parliament. Reason: It is in the nature of obligatory payment. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. A. A is true but R is false. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. D. A is false but R is true. Ans: B
- The District and sessions Judge works directly under the control of: A. Governor of the state B. High Court of the state C. Law Minister of the state D. District Collector Ans: B
- The Governor of a state:
- Possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to the President.
- Has to act with the aid and advice of the council of ministers always.
- Has the power to appoint and remove the members of State Public Service Commission.
- Has the power to allocate business of the government among the various ministers. Of the above, the correct statements are: A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 3 and 4 Ans: B
- Which of the following are true of the Central Administrative Tribunal?
- It was established under the provisions of Article 312-A of the Constitution.
- It was set up by an order of the President of India.
- It was set up in 1985.
- It was set up by an Act of Parliament.
A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 3 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 3 Ans: C
- The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources?
- Constitution
- Parliamentary laws
- Executive rules and orders
- Conventions
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 1 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: D
- The present relationship between the President and the council of ministers is governed by the provisions of: A. 42nd Amendment Act B. 48th Amendment Act C. 44th Amendment Act D. 54th Amendment Act Ans: C
- Assertion: Article 149 of the Indian
Constitution lays down the provisions with regard to the appointment and service conditions of the Comptroller and AuditorGeneral of India. Reason: He cannot function independently unless he enjoys the constitutional protection. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. A is false but R is true. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: B
- Which of the following statements related to the Central Administrative Tribunal are correct?
- It is a statutory body.
- Its members are drawn from administrative background only.
- It is not bound by the procedure prescribed in the code of civil procedure.
- Its jurisdiction covers the members of All India Services as well as Central Services and Central Government posts.
- It was setup in 1985. A. 1 and 4 B. 1, 3, 4 and 5 C. 2, 3 and 5 D. 2 and 3 Ans: B
- Assertion: The Finance Commission facilitates the maintenance of financial balance between the Union and the states in the Indian federal system. Reason: The Constitution of India has given more financial powers to the Union Government. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. B. A is true but R is false. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. D. A is false but R is true. Ans: C
- Assertion: Audit in India is equally
- The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the C & AG vests with: A. President of India B. National Development Council C. Parliament D. Supreme Court Ans: C
- Statutory grants are given to states by the Centre on the recommendation of: A. NITI Aayog B. Finance Ministry C. National Development Council D. Finance Commission Ans: D
- Which of the following statements are correct?
- Balwantray Mehta Committee was appointed in 1957.
- Ashok Mehta Committee submitted its report in 1977.
- G.V.K. Rao Committee submitted its report in
- L.M. Singhvi Committee submitted its report in 1987.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4 Ans: B
- Statutory recognition to the portfolio system was accorded by: A. Indian Councils Act of 1892 B. Indian Councils Act of 1871 C. Indian Councils Act of 1882 D. Indian Councils Act of 1861 Ans: D
- Which of the following will be the consequences of the proclamation of Financial Emergency by the President?
- The President can give directions to the states to observe the principles of financial propriety.
- The President can reduce the salaries and allowances of government employees excluding the judges of Supreme Court and High Courts.
- All money bills and other financial bills passed
by a state legislature can be reserved for the consideration of the President.
- The Parliament can authorise the President to sanction expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of the state. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4 Ans: B
- Assertion: The duty of CAG is not merely to ensure the legality of expenditure but also its propriety. Reason: He has to uphold the Constitution and the laws of Parliament in the field of financial administration. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. A is false but R is true. B. A is true but R is false. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. Ans: C
- Which of the following can provide for the appointment of a Joint Public Service Commission? A. UPSC B. Parliament of India C. President of India D. State Governors Ans: B
- The personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution can be placed within the jurisdiction of the UPSC by: A. President of India B. Parliament C. Supreme Court D. Central Ministry of Personnel Ans: B
- The Balwantray Mehta Committee was a committee on: A. Panchayati Raj institutions B. Community development programme C. Democratic-decentralisation D. Administrative arrangements for rural development
Ans: B
- Assertion: The President of India can be impeached for the violation of the Constitution. Reason: The Constitution lays down the procedure for impeachment of the President. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C. A is true but R is false. D. A is false but R is true Ans: A
- The 73rd Amendment Act does not apply to the states of:
- Nagaland
- Mizoram
- Jammu and Kashmir
- Meghalaya
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 3 Ans: B
- The Indian President's veto power is a combination of:
- Pocket veto
- Absolute veto
- Suspensive veto
- Qualified veto
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4 Ans: A
- The recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj are:
- Creation of a two-tier system
- Reservation of seats for SCs and STs
- Compulsory powers of taxation to Panchayati Raj institutions
- Open participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj affairs
- If superceded, elections must be held within one year
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2, 4 and 5 Ans: A
- Erstwhile Planning Commission was set up on the recom-mendation of: A. Constituent AssemblyMatching PatternMatch List I with List II and select the correct answers by using codes givenbelow the lists. B. Advisory Planning Board C. National Planning Committee D. Gorwala Report Ans: B
- Which of the following are not the concerns of the UPSC?
- Classification of services
- Promotion
- Training
- Disciplinary matters
- Talent hunting
A. 1 and 4Matching PatternMatch List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codesgiven below the respective lists. B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 1 and 3 D. 2, 4 and 5 Ans: C
- Which of the following statements related to UPSC are correct?
- It derives its functions only from the Constitution.
- It is not consulted on matters related to the reservation of posts for the BCs, SCs and STs.
- The President can exclude posts, services and matters from the purview of consultation with UPSC.
- The President can place the personnel system of any local authority, corporate body or public institution within the jurisdiction of UPSC. A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4
A. 1667
B. 1687
C. 1678
D. 1767
Ans: B
- Which of the following categories of bills require prior consent of the President before their introduction?
- Bills to reorganise states.
- Bills affecting taxes in which the states are interested.
- State bills imposing restrictions on freedom of trade.
- Bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 1, 2, 3 D. 1, 2 and 4 Ans: A
- Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? A. 1853 Act – Governor-General of India B. 1861 Act – Portfolio system C. 1935 Act – Bicameralism D. 1919 Act – Dyarchy at the Centre Ans: B
- The correct statements about ordinance making power of the Governor are:
- It is laid down in Article 213.
- It can be issued by him after the advice of the President or state council of ministers.
- It is co-extensive with the legislative power of the state legislature.
- It can be issued only during the recess of State Legislative Assembly and not the Legislative Council.
- It can not be withdrawn by him anytime.
A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 4 and 5 Ans: C
- The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by:
A. Act of the Parliament B. Executive resolution C. Constitutional provision D. Resolution of the Santhanam Committee Ans: B
- Assertion: No person shall be eligible for appointment as a Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty years. Reason: The Governor shall not hold any other office of profit. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. C. A is false but R is true. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: C
- Which of the following are not correct about CAG of India?
- He is appointed by the President for a period of five years.
- His salary and conditions of service are determined by President.
- He shall vacate office on attaining the age of 60 years.
- He can be removed by the President on his own.
- He is responsible for maintaining the accounts of Central and state governments.
A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 C. 1, 4 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5 Ans: B
- Which one of the following amendments to the Constitutions, for the first time, made it obligatory for the President to act on the advice of the council of ministers? A. 54th amendment B. 44th amendment C. 24th amendment D. 42nd amendment Ans: D
- Which of the following civil services find
mention in the Constitution?
- Indian Administrative Service
- Indian Forest Service
- Indian Police Service
- All-India Judicial Service
- Indian Foreign Service
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1 and 3 Ans: C
- Assertion: A person who holds, or who has held, office as President shall not be eligible for re-election to that office. Reason: No person shall be eligible for election as a President unless he is qualified for election as a member of the House of People. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. B. A is true but R is false. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. D. A is false but R is true. Ans: D
- Assertion: Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President. Reason: The UPSC is a constitutional body. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B. A is false but R is true. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: C
- Which of the following are the compulsory provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj?
- Indirect elections of the chairpersons of Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
- Fresh elections within six months in case of dissolution.
- Provision for reservation of seats for backward classes.
- Giving representation to MPs and MLAs in Panchayats.
A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 2 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4 Ans: B
- Assertion: NITI Aayog is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body. Reason: It is established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. A is false but R is true. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: B
- Assertion: All-India Services are instruments of national integration. Reason: Its members are appointed by President of India. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below A. A is true but R is false. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C. A is false but R is true. D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Ans: B
- Assertion: The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demands-forgrants. Reason: A money bill or finance bill dealing with taxation cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. B. A is true but R is false. C. A is false but R is true. D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
departments of Finance Ministry?
- Department of Expenditure
- Department of Economic Affairs
- Department of Banking
- Department of Revenue
- Department of Budget
A. 2 and 3 B. 3 and 4 C. 2 and 5 D. 3 and 5 Ans: D
- Assertion: The writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts in India is same. Reason: Both, the Supreme Court and the High Court can issue the writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo warranto. Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. A. A is true but R is false. B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. C. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. D. A is false but R is true. Ans: D
- Which is correctly matched? A. President's rule – Article 365 B. Inter-State Council – Article 264 C. Duties of Prime Minister – Article 74 D. Amendment procedure – Article 268 Ans: A
- Which of the following are the functions of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?
- To examine, in the light of CAG's report, the accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the Parliament.
- To examine, in the light of CAG's report, the statement of accounts of state corporations, trading and manufacturing projects except of those as are allotted to the committee on public undertakings.
- To examine the statement of accounts of autonomous and semiautonomous bodies, the audit of which is conducted by the CAG.
- To examine if any money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted by house of people for that
purpose.
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: D
- Assertion: The budget is placed in the Upper House (Rajya Sabha) at the end of the Finance Minister's Budget Speech in the Lok Sabha. Reason: The budget is presented to the Lok Sabha on the last working day of February. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below. A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. A is false but R is true. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: C
- Dyarchy was introduced by: A. Indian Councils Act of 1909 B. Government of India Act of 1919 C. Government of India Act of 1935 D. Independence Act of 1947 Ans: B
- Which one of the following devices calls the attention of minister towards a matter of public importance? A. Half-an-hour discussion B. Short duration discussion C. Adjournment motion D. Calling attention notice Ans: D
- Assertion: The Constitution has not fixed the number of members of the UPSC. Reason: The Chairman and members of the UPSC are appointed by President. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below A. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. B. A is false but R is true. C. A is true but R is false. D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. Ans: A
- Assertion: The Governor is dejure head of state administration. Reason: The Chief Minister is de-facto head of state administration. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. A is true but R is false. B. A is false but R is true. C. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Ans: D
- Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?
- It is subject to the vote of Parliament.
- It is subject to the discussion in Parliament.
- It is subject to the vote of Lok Sabha only.
- It is not subject to the vote of Parliament.
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3 D. 2 and 4 Ans: D
- Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the prohibition as to the holding of offices by members of Public Service Commissions on ceasing to be such members? 1. The Chairman of the UPSC shall be ineligible for further employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
- The Chairman of a SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
- A member other than Chairman of the UPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman of the UPSC or as Chairman of a SPSC, but not for any other employment, either under the Government of India or under the government of a state.
- A member other than Chairman of the SPSC shall be eligible for appointment as Chairman or any other member of the UPSC or as Chairman of that or any other SPSC, but not for any other employment either under the Government of India or under the government of a state. A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 1 only D. 1 and 3 Ans: A
- Which of the following are true of the Staff Selection Commission?
- It was set up in 1976.
- It enjoys the status of a subordinate office of Ministry of Personnel.
- It was created by executive resolution.
- It recruits personnel to non-technical Class III posts in the Secretariat, the attached offices and the subordinate offices in the Central Government. A. 3 and 4 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2 and 4 Ans: A
- Which of the following acts laid the foundation of Central administration? A. Regulating Act of 1773 B. Charter Act of 1853 C. Charter Act of 1833 D. Pitts India Act of 1784 Ans: A
- According to the Balwantray Mehta Committee, the District Collector should be: A. The Chairman of the Zila Parishad B. A member of the Zila Parishad with the right to vote C. A non-voting member of the Zila Parishad D. Kept out of the Zila Parishad Ans: A
- A new All-India Service can be created by: A. An act of Parliament B. An order of the President C. A resolution of the Rajya Sabha D. A resolution of the UPSC Ans: A
Constitution gives a constitutional status to the Gram Sabha. Reason: The Balvantray Mehta Committee report made a formal mention of the Gram Sabha. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. B. A is false but R is true. C. A is true but R is false. D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Ans: C
- Fundamental Duties were incorporated in the Constitution on the recommendation of: A. Shah Commission B. Santhanam Committee C. Administrative Reforms Commission D. Swaran Singh Committee Ans: D
- If any question arises as to the age of a judge of a High Court, the question shall be decided by the President after consultation with: A. The Attorney-General of India B. The Governor of the concerned state C. The Chief Justice of India D. The Chief Justice of the concerned High Court Ans: C
- 'The state shall strive to promote the welfare of people by securing and protecting as effectively as it may, a social order in which justice-social, economic and political-shall inform all the institutions of the national life.' This provision is contained in which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution? A. Article 37 B. Article 38 C. Article 46 D. Article 39 Ans: B
- Assertion: The President of India determines the qualifications of the Chairman and members of the Finance Commisson. Reason: The Chairman and members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the President of India. Select the correct code:
A. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. C. A is false but R is true. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: C
- 'Since their inception, the NDC and its standing committee have virtually relegated the Planning Commission to the status of a research arm.' This statement is associated with: A. H.M. Patel B. K. Santhanam C. M. Brecher D. Ashok Chanda Ans: C
- Which of the following must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee before being submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting? A. Excess grant B. Additional grant C. Exceptional grant D. Token grant Ans: A
- Which of the following is not a feature of Government of India Act of 1935? A. Provincial autonomy B. Dyarchy at the Centre C. All-India Federation D. Dyarchy in the provinces Ans: D
- The need for a separate parliamentary committee on public undertakings was first visualised by: A. Ashok Mehta B. Lanka Sundaram C. Krishna Menon Committee D. G.V. Mavalankar Ans: B
- The number of demands in the General Budget for civil expenditures is: A. 103 B. 106 C. 109 D. 102 Ans: A
- Who said the 'Indian Constitution established a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features?' A. K.C. Wheare B. Granville Austin C. Ivor Jennings D. B.R. Ambedker Ans: A
- Assertion: There shall be a council of ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except in so far he is by or under the Constitution, required to exercise his functions, or any of them in his discretion. Reason: The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and other ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. A is true but R is false. B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. C. A is false but R is true. D. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Ans: B
- While appointing a Lokayuka, the Governor in most of the states consults:
- President of India
- Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
- Leader of the opposition in the Legislative Assembly
- Chief Justice of the State High Court
- Leader of the Opposition in the Legislative Council.
A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 3 and 4 C. 1, 4 and 5 D. 3, 4 and 5 Ans: B
- Which of the following statements with regard to the CAG are correct?
- He is responsible only to the Parliament.
- He certifies the net proceeds of any tax.
- He compiles and maintains the accounts of
state governments.
- He has control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2 and 4 Ans: B
- The accounts of the Union and of the States shall be kept in such form as prescribed by: A. Finance Minister of India in consultation with CAG of India. B. CAG of India with the approval of Planning Commission. C. CAG of India with the approval of the President. D. President of India in consultation with CAG of India Ans: D
- According to Administrative Reforms Commission, the Lokpal would be appointed by the President after consultation with the:
- Chief Justice of India
- Leader of opposition in the Lok Sabha
- Speaker of the Lok Sabha
- Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: C
- How many members are nominated to the State Legislative Council by the Governor? A. One-third B. One-sixth C. One-twelfth D. One-eighth Ans: B
- District Judges are appointed by: A. The Chief Justice of High Court B. The Chief Minister of state C. The State Public Service Commission D. The Governor of state Ans: D
- The CAG of India can be removed from the office only in like manner and on like grounds as: A. Attorney General of India B. Chairman of the UPSC C. Supreme Court Judge D. Speaker of Lok Sabha Ans: C
- The main objective of the National Development Council is: A. To promote common economic policies in all vital spheres. B. To ensure balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country. C. To strengthen and mobilise the efforts and resources of the nation insupport of the plan. D. To secure cooperation of states in execution of the plan. Ans: D
- The first Lokpal Bill was introduced in the Parliament in: A. 1968 B. 1971 C. 1972 D. 1967 Ans: A
- The Railway budget has: A. 36 demands B. 42 demands C. 32 demands D. 34 demands Ans: C
- The Vote on Account is passed: A. After the voting of demands B. Either after the voting of the demands or after the general discussion. C. After the general discussion D. Before the general discussion Ans: C
- On which of the following items, the Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President?
- The distribution between the Union and the states of the net proceeds of taxes and the allocation between the states of the respective shares of such proceeds.
- The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
- The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a state to supplement the resources of the municipalities in the state on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance Commission of the state.
- Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance. A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2 and 4 Ans: A
- Which of the following are true of the President's ordinance making power?
- It is laid down in Article 123.
- Its ambit is coextensive with the legislative power of Parliament.
- He can promulgate an ordinance only when the Lok Sabha is not in session.
- It is a discretionary power of the President. A. 1, 2, and 3 B. 1 and 2 C. 1, 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: B
- Assertion: The UPSC is the Central recruiting agency in India. Reason: It is an independent constitutional body. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. A is true but R is false. C. A is false but R is true. D. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A. Ans: D
- A President's rule can be imposed in a state under the provisions of:
- Article 356
- Article 360
- Article 352
- Article 365
A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 3 C. only 1 D. 1 and 2 Ans: A
- The correct statements about municipalities include:
- They are known by various other names in different states.
- They are controlled by the state governments.
- Vesting of the executive authority in the Chairman.
- They are statutory bodies. A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 2 Ans: B
- The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are:
- They are enforceable in the court of law.
- These rights are absolute.
- They can be suspended during national emergency, except some.
- They are available only to Indian citizens.
- They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution.
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 B. 1, 3 and 5 C. 1 and 3 D. 1, 3, 4 and 5 Ans: C
- Assertion: The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of the IAS and IPS. Reason: The IAS and IPS violate the principles of federalism and ministerial responsibility at the state level. Assertion (A) and Reason (R) Pattern Answer the following questions by using the codes given below A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. A is true but R is false. C. A is false but R is true. D. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Ans: A
- Which article of the Indian Constitution
deals with the suability of the State of India? A. Article 200 B. Article 100 C. Article 300 D. Article 330 Ans: C
- Which of the following is not a formally prescribed device available to the members of Parliament? A. Half-an-hour discussion B. Zero Hour C. Short duration discussion D. Question Hour Ans: B
- Which of the following are the limitations on the sovereignty of Indian Parliament? 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Judicial Review 3. Federalism 4. Written Constitution A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Ans: D
- Assertion: The number of members of UPSC is determined by the President. Reason: The members of the UPSC are appointed by the President. Select the correct code: A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B. Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A. C. A is false but R is true. D. A is true but R is false. Ans: B
- In which of the following circumstances the President can remove a member of the UPSC without referring the matter to the Supreme Court?
- If he engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office.
- If he is adjudged an insolvent.
- If he is unfit to continue in office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.
- If he becomes, in any way, concerned or interested in any contract or agreement made by or on behalf of the Government of India or the government of a state.
